All Coursera Quiz Answers

Module quiz: Threat modeling Quiz Answers

In this article i am gone to share Advanced Cybersecurity Concepts and Capstone Project by Microsoft | Week 1 Quiz | Module quiz: Threat modeling Quiz Answers with you..

Enrol Link:  Advanced Cybersecurity Concepts and Capstone Project


Module quiz: Threat modeling Quiz Answers

Question 1)
When decomposing an application for threat modeling, which of the following components should be considered? Select all that apply.

  • Operating system
  • Database
  • Application testing tools
  • User interface

Question 2)
Which of the following are primary benefits of understanding the application’s purpose during threat modeling? Select all that apply.

  • Assessing the compatibility of third-party integrations based on functionality requirements
  • Prioritizing security controls based on potential risks
  • Recognizing the application’s data flow
  • Identifying user roles and permissions

Question 3)
You are working as a cybersecurity analyst attending a training session on threat analysis. During the session, the instructor asked you what STRIDE stands for in the context of threat analysis. What is your answer?

  • Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege
  • Security, Tampering, Risk, Information Disclosure, Elevation of Privilege
  • Security, Traceability, Reporting, Identity Verification, Data Encryption, Enhancement of Performance

Question 4)
What is one of the advantages of threat modeling?

  • Creating redundancy and failover mechanisms
  • Reducing the attack surface of a system or application
  • Developing a comprehensive threat encyclopedia
  • Predicting specific attack methods

Question 5)
Fill in the blank: The PASTA framework encourages collaboration among various departments within an organization, including IT, development, and business units, to ensure a well-rounded understanding of potential ________________.

  • Vulnerabilities
  • Risks
  • Cyberthreats

Question 6)
Which CVSS Version 3.1 Calculator metrics adjust the Base Score to account for factors like exploit availability and patch status?

  • CVSS Score Calculation
  • Temporal Score Metrics
  • Environmental Score Metrics

Question 7)
Which scenario best captures the visual aspect of the VAST methodology?

  • An organization transitions to Microsoft Sentinel for its advanced machine learning capabilities, hoping to better predict potential future threats based on existing data.
  • A global company implements Microsoft Sentinel and gains a unified view of all its security events across multiple international branches, enabling it to detect patterns and correlations that were previously unnoticed.
  • After evaluating several security solutions, a company opts for Microsoft Sentinel because of its user-friendly interface and easy-to-configure settings.

Question 8)
Which of the following are benefits of the Microsoft Threat Modeling Tool? Select all that apply.

  • It enables software architects to identify and address potential security issues early in the development process.
  • It offers automation functionalities that provide feedback during model creation.
  • It provides clear guidance on creating and analyzing threat models.
  • It automatically patches vulnerabilities without user intervention.

Question 9)
You are a cybersecurity specialist working for a company specializing in cloud security solutions. You have to train a new employee about the Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) process for Azure Virtual Network. What do you tell them is the primary focus of SDL?

  • Providing a process tailored for securing Azure Virtual Networks
  • Analyzing real-world cybersecurity incidents in Azure Virtual Networks
  • Exploring general principles of network security
  • Exploring cybersecurity threats specific to an industry

Question 10)
Which question of the Four Question Framework of threat modeling emphasizes the iterative process of ensuring that security measures are consistent, effective, and aligned with an organization’s security goals?

  • What can go wrong?
  • Did the team do a good job?
  • What is the team going to do about it?
  • What is the team working on?


Question 11)
Which of the following statements best describes the primary goal of threat modeling in the context of web application security?

  • To identify and fix all vulnerabilities post-production
  • To proactively identify, understand, and address potential threats during the development process.
  • To conduct frequent security audits and report findings
  • To document potential threats without necessarily taking corrective action

Question 12)
Fill in the blank: The STRIDE model stands for Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of ____________.

  • Privilege
  • Integrity
  • Privacy
  • Authentication

Question 13)
Fill in the blank: Threat modeling helps organizations identify and eliminate ________________ points of failure.

  • Security
  • Single
  • Critical
  • Data breach

Question 14)
True or False: The PASTA framework consists of four structured steps.

  • True
  • False

Question 15)
Which component of the CVSS Version 3.1 scoring system evaluates the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of a vulnerability in an information system?

  • Environmental Score Metrics
  • Impact Metrics
  • Temporal Score Metrics
  • Attack Vector Metrics

Question 16)
True or False: VAST integrates machine learning techniques to automate threat detection and response processes.

  • True
  • False

Question 17)
What is the primary objective of Phase 4 in the SDL process for Azure Virtual Networks?

  • To implement security measures
  • To validate the effectiveness of security controls
  • To create a network diagram
  • To identify potential security threats and vulnerabilities

Question 18)
Which of the following methods can be used for threat identification in threat modeling? Select all that apply.

  • Structured approaches like STRIDE, kill chains, and attack trees
  • Risk acceptance
  • Elimination of identified threats
  • Brainstorming

Question 19)
True or False: Identifying vulnerabilities in an application requires conducting vulnerability scans and code reviews.

  • True
  • False

Question 20)
What is the primary goal of threat categorization in cybersecurity?

  • To develop a comprehensive threat encyclopedia
  • To create a list of potential countermeasures
  • To develop a clear understanding of the threat landscape
  • To predict specific attack methods

Question 21)
You are working as a cybersecurity analyst at a large financial institution. Your manager has assigned you to explain the PASTA framework to a newly hired junior analyst. What do you tell them is the primary focus of the PASTA framework in cybersecurity?

  • Identifying, assessing, and prioritizing potential threats and risks
  • Implementing technical security controls
  • Identifying specific attackers and their motivations
  • Developing cybersecurity policies and procedures

Question 22)
In the context of cybersecurity, what three dimensions does the CVSS Version v3.1 Calculator use to assess and prioritize vulnerabilities?

  • Base Metrics, Temporal Metrics, and Environmental Metrics
  • Network Architecture, Intrusion Detection, and Malware Analysis
  • Threat landscapes, Zero-Day Exploits, and Data Exfiltration
  • Attack Vectors, Exploit Code Generation, and Threat Actors

Question 23)
What benefits does VAST offer to organizations? Select all that apply.

  • Enhanced security posture
  • Cost savings
  • Enhanced compliance tracking
  • Improved resource allocation

Question 24)
What is part of the purpose of defining the scope in the Four Question Framework of threat modeling?

  • To understand what aspects of the organization need protection
  • To identify all possible vulnerabilities in a system
  • To prioritize threats based on their severity
  • To create a list of potential threats

Question 25)
When decomposing an application for threat modeling, what is the significance of understanding the application’s purpose?

  • It defines the application’s technical specifications.
  • It helps determine the number of components.
  • It assists in recognizing potential motives behind attacks.
  • It determines the architecture of the application.

Question 26)
True or False: Threat modeling helps organizations optimize their efforts and budget to effectively address the most critical threats.

  • True
  • False

Question 27)
Which method does the Microsoft Threat Modeling Tool use to categorize potential vulnerabilities systematically?

  • The STRIDE model
  • VAST methodology
  • PASTA framework

Question 28)
Which of the following is an example of a countermeasure to address threats in threat modeling?

  • Implementing security controls throughout the development lifecycle
  • Conducting penetration testing
  • Patching vulnerabilities after an attack occurs
  • Red teaming exercises to simulate attacks

Question 29)
Using the Threat Modeling Tool, how can users classify the status of identified threats?

  • By type: Malware, Phishing, DDoS
  • By stages: Not Applicable, Not Started, Needs Investigation, Mitigated
  • By source: Internal, External, Third-party
  • By severity level: Low, Medium, High, Critical

Question 30)
What is the primary purpose of Phase 1 in the SDL process for Azure Virtual Networks?

  • To identify potential security threats and vulnerabilities
  • To mitigate potential security threats
  • To create an Azure Virtual Network diagram
  • To validate security controls