Cybersecurity Tools and Technologies

Cybersecurity Tools and Technologies Quiz Answers + Review

Posted on by Niyander

In this article, I’m sharing my review of the Cybersecurity Tools and Technologies course, along with all the quiz answers to help fellow learners.

Just completed the Coursera course “Cybersecurity Tools and Technologies”? This course is part of the Microsoft Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate and gives you hands-on insight into the tools and strategies used in real-world cybersecurity environments. From penetration testing to system scanning and vulnerability management, the course provides a practical look at both attack and defense within cloud-based platforms. Whether you’re preparing for the SC-900 exam or exploring cybersecurity tools for the first time, this course is a great next step — and I’ve included the quiz answers to help guide you through!

Module quiz: Penetration testing Quiz Answers

Question 1)
True or False: Offensive security focuses on protecting systems from attacks.

  • True
  • False

Question 2)
What is the primary responsibility of the blue team in cybersecurity?

  • Safeguarding systems and data
  • Breaching the security of a system
  • Conducting vulnerability scans

Question 3)
True or False: The red team’s objective is to defend an organization’s digital assets and protect against threats.

  • True
  • False

Question 4)
Which stage of penetration testing involves attempting to gain unauthorized access to the target system?

  • Reporting and remediation
  • Enumeration
  • Escalation
  • Exploitation

Question 5)
Penetration testing is a process of ________ vulnerabilities in an organization’s information systems.

  • Exploiting
  • Identifying
  • Identifying and exploiting

Question 6)
The MITRE ATT&CK framework helps organizations improve their threat __________ __________ capabilities.

  • identification and mitigation
  • detection and response
  • monitoring and remediation
  • prevention and recovery

Question 7)
What does black box testing focus on?

  • Internal code and structure.
  • Manipulating the inputs.
  • Inputs and outputs without knowledge of internal workings.
  • System requirements and functionalities.

Question 8)
Which of the following take place in white box testing? Select all that apply.

  • Source code review
  • Path testing
  • Code coverage analysis
  • User acceptance testing

Question 9)
Grey box testing provides a ___________ approach to testing, allowing testers to make educated guesses and decisions about where to focus their testing efforts.

  • Random
  • Complete
  • Limited
  • Balanced

Question 10)
What is the purpose of compliance testing in data management systems?

  • To ensure data encryption is functioning properly.
  • To assess the security controls in place for data protection.
  • To monitor compliance activities and generate compliance reports.
  • To verify adherence to applicable laws, regulations, and industry standards.

Question 11)
True or False: The blue team is responsible for network monitoring and vulnerability scanning.

  • True
  • False

Question 12)
Which activity of the red team helps organizations identify vulnerabilities by attempting to breach live systems and infrastructure?

  • Penetration testing
  • Risk assessment and mitigation
  • Vulnerability assessment
  • Social engineering testing

Question 13)
What is the purpose of the enumeration stage in penetration testing?

  • Gathering information about the target system.
  • Identifying vulnerabilities and potential attack vectors.
  • Exploiting software vulnerabilities.
  • Reporting the findings and recommendations.

Question 14)
What is the final stage of the penetration testing process?

  • Enumeration
  • Reporting and remediation
  • Reconnaissance
  • Exploitation

Question 15)
Which of the following are tactics in the MITRE ATT&CK framework? Select all that apply.

  • Command and Control
  • Persistence
  • Authentication
  • Discovery

Question 16)
True or False: Black box testing involves designing test cases that cover various scenarios.

  • True
  • False

Question 17)
Which of the following take place in white box testing? Select all that apply.

  • Source code review
  • Code coverage analysis
  • Path testing
  • User acceptance testing

Question 18)
Which approaches are commonly used in grey box testing during penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Black box testing
  • Data flow analysis
  • Architecture analysis
  • Code review

Question 19)
Which activities are part of ethical hacking? Select all that apply.

  • Red versus blue exercises
  • Social engineering testing
  • Network penetration testing
  • Web application development

Question 20)
True or False: The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques maintained by a non-profit organization called MITRE.

  • True
  • False

Question 21)
Which of the following take place in black box testing? Select all that apply.

  • Requirement analysis
  • Debugging and code optimization
  • Test case design
  • Test execution

Question 22)
Which techniques are used in white box testing during penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Static analysis
  • Performance testing
  • Code review
  • Fuzz testing
  • Dynamic analysis

Question 23)
Azure Compliance Manager provides a unified view of compliance controls, allowing organizations to evaluate their ________________ against various regulatory frameworks.

  • data encryption
  • compliance posture
  • access controls
  • risks

Question 24)
Which of the following are responsibilities of the blue team? Select all that apply.

  • Conducting ethical hacking exercises
  • Vulnerability scanning
  • Network monitoring
  • Collaborating with other teams
  • Intrusion detection

Question 25)
Which techniques are commonly used in the exploitation stage of penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Leveraging misconfigurations.
  • Gathering information about the target system.
  • Brute-forcing weak passwords.
  • Executing social engineering attacks.

Question 26)
True or False: White box testing involves examining a system solely based on its inputs and outputs without any knowledge of its internal workings.

  • True
  • False

Question 27)
What is the primary goal of red teaming?

  • Assess and improve defensive security measures directly.
  • Simulate real-world attacks and identify vulnerabilities in a system’s security.
  • Protect the organization’s critical assets against any kind of threat.

Question 28)
Which of the following are key compliance features offered by Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Cost management
  • Performance optimization
  • Access controls
  • Data encryption

Question 29)
True or False: Reconnaissance is the stage in penetration testing where testers attempt to gain unauthorized access to the target system.

  • True
  • False

Question 30)
Which benefit does the red team’s activities provide in terms of an organization’s security culture?

  • Raising awareness and empowering employees
  • Identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses
  • Conducting comprehensive assessments

Question 31)
True or False: Grey box testing combines elements of both black box testing and white box testing.

  • True
  • False

Module quiz: Preventative tools Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which components make up an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)? Select all that apply.

  • Analyzers
  • Routers
  • Sensors
  • Firewalls

Question 2)
What are the different types of IDPS?

  • Network-based IDPS, Host-based IDPS, and Wireless IDPS.
  • Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
  • Cloud-based IDPS, Hybrid IDPS, and Virtual IDPS.
  • Network-based IDPS, Cloud-based IDPS, and Host-based IDPS.

Question 3)
Which benefits does an IDPS offer to organizations? Select all that apply.

  • Compliance with regulations
  • Enhanced incident response
  • Early threat detection
  • Improved network speed

Question 4)
What is the primary purpose of firewall design in Microsoft Azure?

  • To protect valuable resources from unauthorized access and cyber threats.
  • To ensure high availability and disaster recovery for resources.
  • To enable unauthorized access to resources and data.
  • To simplify management of security measures by using human errors.

Question 5)
You’re tasked with designing a firewall solution for Microsoft Azure. Considering the importance of high availability and disaster recovery, why is integrating these aspects crucial in your design?

  • High availability and disaster recovery ensure continuous operation and minimal downtime in case of unforeseen events.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are only relevant for on-premises firewall solutions, not for Azure Firewall.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are primarily focused on improving the performance and scalability of Azure Firewall.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are only important for large-scale Azure environments, not for smaller deployments.

Question 6)
You’re architecting a network infrastructure in Microsoft Azure to ensure efficient communication between virtual networks. Considering the available options, which network topology facilitates direct communication between virtual networks?

  • Azure Firewall with private endpoints
  • Single virtual network
  • Virtual network peering
  • Hub and spoke

Question 7)
What is the primary purpose of a virtual network gateway in Azure?

  • To provide a managed VPN solution for secure communication between on-premises networks and Azure virtual networks.
  • To create virtual network connections within Azure for efficient sharing of data.
  • To serve as a dedicated, private connection between on-premises networks and Azure services.

Question 8)
What is the purpose of vulnerability assessments in the vulnerability management process?

  • To identify, assess, and manage vulnerabilities.
  • To exploit security vulnerabilities.
  • To ignore potential weaknesses.
  • To create new vulnerabilities.

Question 9)
What is the primary goal of vulnerability management?

  • To guarantee absolute immunity against all cyber threats.
  • To create new vulnerabilities.
  • To focus solely on incident response planning.
  • To identify and eliminate security vulnerabilities.

Question 10)
What is a common cause of software vulnerabilities?

  • Ignoring software updates.
  • Programming errors.
  • Frequent network reconfigurations.
  • Proper hardware configuration.

Question 11)
True or False: Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS) can only detect known attack patterns and cannot detect zero-day attacks.

  • True
  • False

Question 12)
Which functions are typically performed by components of an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)?
Select all that apply.

  • Filtering incoming traffic
  • Collecting network traffic
  • Routing network traffic
  • Analyzing network data

Question 13)
You’re tasked with designing a firewall solution for Microsoft Azure. Considering the importance of high availability and disaster recovery, why is integrating these aspects crucial in your design?

  • High availability and disaster recovery ensure continuous operation and minimal downtime in case of unforeseen events.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are primarily focused on improving the performance and scalability of Azure Firewall.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are only relevant for on-premises firewall solutions, not for Azure Firewall.
  • High availability and disaster recovery are only important for large-scale Azure environments, not for smaller deployments.

Question 14)
Which of the following statements about Azure Firewall Premium is true?

  • Azure Firewall Premium offers built-in high availability with a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
  • Azure Firewall Premium is available as a free add-on to all Azure subscriptions.
  • Azure Firewall Premium is only available in specific Azure regions.
  • Azure Firewall Premium provides free access to Azure Private Link services.

Question 15)
Which of the following are examples of VPN connection types in Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Point-to-Site VPN
  • VNet-to-VNet VPN
  • Site-to-Site VPN
  • Hybrid VPN

Question 16)
True or False: Vulnerability management is a proactive approach to cybersecurity, encompassing the process of identifying, assessing, mitigating, and managing security vulnerabilities within an organization’s IT infrastructure.

  • True
  • False

Question 17)
True or False: A successful cyberattack can lead to data breaches, financial losses, damage to an organization’s reputation, and legal liabilities.

  • True
  • False

Question 18)
Why is it important to conduct both software and configuration vulnerability assessments?

  • To save time and resources.
  • To focus only on critical vulnerabilities.
  • To provide more comprehensive security coverage.
  • To eliminate the need for incident response planning.

Question 19)
True or False: IDPS can only detect and alert security personnel about potential intrusions, but it cannot prevent them.

  • True
  • False

Question 20)
What is the role of sensors in an IDPS?

  • Sensors serve as the eyes and ears of an IDPS by collecting network traffic and logging events.
  • Sensors manage and configure network devices.
  • Sensors provide wireless connectivity to devices.
  • Sensors analyze network traffic and identify potential threats.

Question 21)
Which of the following are key design principles for a well-designed firewall strategy in Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Using private endpoints to expose Azure Firewall to the public internet for enhanced security.
  • Mitigating potential risks and preventing security breaches by safeguarding resources from diverse cyber threats.
  • Ensuring direct communication between virtual networks using virtual network peering.
  • Simplifying management and enforcement of security measures by using network security groups (NSGs).

Question 22)
Which of the following statements about traffic segmentation is true?

  • Network security groups (NSGs) are used exclusively for traffic segmentation in Azure.
  • Traffic segmentation is only effective for outbound traffic and has no impact on inbound traffic.
  • Traffic segmentation helps prevent lateral movement of threats within the Azure environment.
  • Traffic segmentation increases the attack surface by allowing unrestricted communication between all resources in the Azure environment.

Question 23)
What is the purpose of using private endpoints with Azure Firewall?

  • To provide direct communication between Azure Firewall and on-premises resources.
  • To expose the Azure Firewall directly to the public internet for enhanced security.
  • To bypass all security measures and enable unrestricted access to Azure resources.
  • To integrate Azure Firewall into a virtual network, ensuring that traffic to and from the firewall remains within the Azure backbone network.

Question 24)
Which of the following is not a type of vulnerability that can manifest in an organization’s IT infrastructure?

  • Weaknesses in network components.
  • Misconfigurations.
  • Software flaws
  • Hardware compatibility.

Question 25)
You’re working as a cybersecurity analyst for a tech company. As part of your role, you’re exploring strategies to enhance your organization’s security posture. One strategy involves making specific adjustments to system settings and parameters in accordance with established best practices. This approach aims to minimize potential points of exploitation. What is this strategy commonly referred to as?

  • Ignoring vulnerabilities.
  • Conducting regular vulnerability scans.
  • Configuration changes.
  • Applying patches and updates.

Question 26)
What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)?

  • To provide wireless connectivity for devices.
  • To monitor and safeguard networks from unauthorized access and malicious activities.
  • To analyze and optimize network traffic.
  • To manage and configure network devices.

Question 27)
True or False: IDPS only uses signature-based detection to identify potential threats.

  • True
  • False

Question 28)
What is the significance of network segmentation in firewall design?

  • Network segmentation adds an extra layer of security by controlling traffic flow between segments and reducing the attack surface.
  • Network segmentation helps in reducing the number of unnecessary routes in Azure Firewall.
  • Network segmentation allows for direct communication between virtual networks in Azure.
  • Network segmentation enhances the scalability and performance of Azure Firewall.

Question 29)
True or False: Configuration vulnerabilities are a result of programming errors in software applications.

  • True
  • False

Question 30)
What are some benefits of using the hub and spoke network topology in Azure?

  • It allows for direct communication between virtual networks without any routing.
  • It eliminates the need for network security groups (NSGs) and Azure Firewall.
  • It is suitable for small-scale deployments but not recommended for large-scale Azure environments.
  • It provides better control, security, and traffic monitoring by funneling all traffic through the hub.

Question 31)
True or False: ExpressRoute gateway is primarily used for creating VPN connections.

  • True
  • False

Module quiz: Azure penetration testing Quiz Answers

Question 1)
True or False: Using the CLI in penetration testing, testers can accomplish tasks faster by typing commands rather than navigating through menus in a GUI.

  • True
  • False

Question 2)
What are some best practices for conducting penetration testing in Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Disabling all services and applications during testing.
  • Ensuring necessary permissions from stakeholders.
  • Running vulnerability scanning tools.
  • Documenting assets in scope for testing.

Question 3)
True or False: Offensive techniques in penetration testing are designed to identify vulnerabilities and potential security gaps within a target environment.

  • True
  • False

Question 4)
Which steps are involved in performing penetration testing on Microsoft Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Deploy resources and networks in the production environment.
  • Execute the penetration test, including vulnerability scanning and application testing.
  • Secure proper authorization and document the testing plan.
  • Choose an appropriate testing approach, such as black box, white box, or grey box.

Question 5)
Which steps are involved in configuring Azure resources for penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Configuring networking settings, including virtual networks, subnets, IP addresses, and security groups.
  • Configuring resource settings, including name, region, size, and operating system.
  • Creating a new Azure Web App.
  • Configuring data storage options, access controls, and redundancy settings.
  • Configuring identity and access management settings using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and role-based access control (RBAC).

Question 6)
True or False: Gobuster is used for directory and file brute-forcing and discovering hidden files and directories on web servers.

  • True
  • False.

Question 7)
A company needs a solution that offers a streamlined and efficient approach to automate security assessments. Which Azure service should they consider for conducting recurring penetration tests with simplicity and ease of use?

  • Azure Active Directory
  • Azure Automation
  • Azure Logic Apps
  • Azure Security Center (Microsoft Defender for Cloud)

Question 8)
What is the main objective of creating a runbook in Azure Automation for conducting penetration tests?

  • To automate ice cream production processes.
  • To streamline the creation of Azure Automation accounts.
  • To define the specific steps and actions for penetration testing.
  • To optimize Azure resource performance.

Question 9)
What is the first step in web application penetration testing using Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell?

  • Analyzing security headers.
  • Running penetration tests on web forms.
  • Scripting fixes for vulnerabilities.
  • Mapping out the attack surface of the web applications.

Question 10)
Which tool allows penetration testers to query and analyze the entire Azure resource landscape, aiding in identifying potential misconfigurations?

  • Azure CLI
  • Azure Active Directory PowerShell Module
  • Azure PowerShell
  • Azure Resource Graph Explorer

Question 11)
Which of the following are common CLI tools in penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Aircrack-ng
  • Burp Suite
  • VB.Net
  • Wireshark
  • Network Mapper (Nmap)

Question 12)
Sarah, an Azure administrator, wants to perform penetration testing to assess the security of their Azure environment. She is aware of the rules of engagement and best practices for penetration testing in Azure. She has gathered the necessary permissions, documented assets in scope, and is ready to run vulnerability scanning tools. However, she receives an email that appears to be from Microsoft, asking her to provide her Azure login credentials for a “security audit.”
What should Sarah do in this situation?

  • Reply to the email with her login credentials to expedite the security audit process.
  • Ignore the email and continue with her penetration testing as planned.
  • Forward the email to internal company’s security team for verification and avoid clicking on any links.
  • Click on the link in the email and provide her Azure login credentials as requested.

Question 13)
True or False: Offensive techniques in penetration testing are designed to identify vulnerabilities and potential security gaps within a target environment.

  • True
  • False

Question 14)
Sam’s Scoops recently adopted Azure Security Center to enhance the security of its Azure environment. The IT team is responsible for configuring automatic testing and alert policies to ensure the integrity of their resources.
What are the key steps involved in configuring automatic testing in Azure Security Center for Sam’s Scoops? Select all that apply.

  • Configuring an alert policy to notify you of vulnerabilities.
  • Setting up a recurring schedule for vulnerability checks.
  • Configuring a backup strategy for data protection.
  • Creating an Automation account for penetration testing.

Question 15)
What is the goal of input validation testing in web application penetration testing?

  • To optimize the application’s database.
  • To identify vulnerabilities like SQL injection and cross-site scripting.
  • To test the speed of the web application.
  • To assess the user experience of the web application.

Question 16)
Fill in the blank: The Azure CLI command used to create a resource group is __________.

  • az create group –name “sams-scoop-RG” –location “East US”
  • az create resource-group –name “sams-scoop-RG” –region “East US”
  • az resource-group add –name “sams-scoop-RG” –region “East US”
  • az group create –name “sams-scoop-RG” –location “East US”

Question 17)
Which of the following are examples of offensive techniques used in Azure penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Access control and identity management
  • Intrusion detection and prevention systems
  • Exploitation
  • Vulnerability scanning

Question 18)
Fill in the blank: Before deploying Azure resources for penetration testing, it’s crucial to configure networking settings, including virtual networks, subnets, IP addresses, and ____________.

  • Server names
  • Security groups
  • Resource tags

Question 19)
Which open-source web application security scanner is designed for use by both beginners and professional penetration testers and can identify vulnerabilities in web applications hosted on Azure?

  • Splunk
  • Burp Suite
  • Wireshark
  • OWASP Zap

Question 20)
True or False: After creating a runbook, you need to input your penetration testing commands or scripts using templates or runbooks within the runbook itself. Further configuration and scripting are required to perform the tests.

  • True
  • False

Question 21)
Fill in the blank: Out of the box, Azure Security Center allows you to receive notifications through various channels, including ________, SMS, or Azure Monitor.

  • Azure Logic Apps
  • Email
  • Azure Monitor

Question 22)
What does the az login command do in Azure CLI?

  • It initiates a login process to the Azure environment.
  • It creates a new resource group.
  • It creates a new Azure subscription.
  • It lists all Azure subscriptions in the account.

Question 23)
True or False: Microsoft encourages penetration testing of Azure services and requires testers to report their findings to the company’s internal security team to help address security gaps.

  • True
  • False

Question 24)
You’re responsible for conducting penetration testing on an Azure environment. You want to simulate a real-world cyberattack to assess vulnerabilities in the Azure infrastructure. Which offensive technique should you use for this purpose?

  • Encryption
  • Access control and identity management
  • Incident response plan
  • Brute force attacks

Question 25)
John is responsible for configuring Azure resources for penetration testing. He wants to create an Automation account for testing purposes.
What should John do based on the scenario? Select all that apply.

  • Create an Automation account with identical settings as a production account.
  • Seek approval from the internal security team before creating an Automation account.
  • Proceed to create an Automation account tailored to the requirements of penetration testing.
  • Create an Automation account using his regular user account (non-administrator account).

Question 26)
What is the primary purpose of Azure Security Center (Microsoft Defender for Cloud) in the context of penetration testing?

  • To automate testing and continuous monitoring of Azure resources for security issues.
  • To create detailed reports on Azure resource performance.
  • To provide free Azure resource credits for testing.
  • To simulate cyberattacks on Azure resources.

Question 27)
You’ve been hired to assess Sam’s Scoops current IT infrastructure and recommend improvements to ensure the security of customer data. You decide to utilize both the Command Line Interface (CLI) and PowerShell to address the IT needs.
What’s a key advantage of using the CLI in penetration testing for Sam’s Scoops?

  • It allows testers to execute commands rapidly and precisely.
  • It provides a graphical interface for easy navigation.
  • It consumes more system resources compared to GUI.
  • It doesn’t support automation.

Question 28)
True or False: Azure penetration testing is a one-time process that does not require ongoing assessment and improvement.

  • True
  • False

Question 29)
You have completed an initial penetration test in an Azure environment and identified several vulnerabilities. What should you do next based on the penetration testing process?

  • Ignore the vulnerabilities, as they were already identified.
  • Share the findings with external parties.
  • Deploy additional resources in the production environment.
  • Review the findings and prioritize the identified vulnerabilities.

Question 30)
Why is automation with Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell important for web application penetration testing?

  • It reduces the need for security professionals.
  • It slows down the testing process.
  • It ensures consistent and thorough evaluations.
  • It only focuses on specific vulnerabilities.

Question 31)
What is the primary function of the Penetration Testing Execution Standard, or PTES?

  • To develop software applications.
  • To provide a structured approach for vulnerability assessment.
  • To design secure encryption algorithms.
  • To conduct network monitoring.

Self review: Plan of attack Quiz Answers

Question 1)
When conducting a penetration test, which of the below represents the initial phase of the test?

  • Enumeration
  • Exploitation
  • Escalation
  • Reconnaissance

Question 2)
Which of the following tools is recommended for conducting automated network scanning during the enumeration phase of a penetration test?

  • Metasploit
  • Azure security center
  • Nmap
  • OWASP Webgoat

Question 3)
During a penetration test, what is the purpose of maintaining access through backdoors or persistent scripts?

  • To ensure continued access for further testing.
  • To demonstrate data security risks.
  • To escalate privileges.
  • To exploit vulnerabilities.

Question 4)
What is the importance of a Network Architecture Diagram in a penetration testing plan?

  • It shows the timeline for conducting the test.
  • It lists all vulnerabilities found during testing.
  • It outlines the legal and compliance considerations.
  • It provides a visual representation of the network structure.

Question 5)
What is the purpose of a debriefing session with stakeholders after penetration testing?

  • To escalate identified vulnerabilities to senior management.
  • To celebrate the successful completion of testing.
  • To obtain permission to conduct the penetration test.
  • To discuss findings, remediation plans, and lessons learned.

Question 6)
In the context of penetration testing, what is the primary goal of the exploitation phase?

  • To escalate privileges on the target system.
  • To gather information about Azure resources.
  • To develop security policies.
  • To identify vulnerabilities in the target system.

Question 7)
What should be the focus when prioritizing vulnerabilities in a penetration testing report?

  • The order in which they were discovered.
  • The complexity of remediation steps.
  • Their criticality, potential impact, and exploitability.
  • The number of vulnerabilities identified.

Question 8)
What is the purpose of the Rules of Engagement in a penetration testing plan?

  • To celebrate the successful completion of testing.
  • To escalate identified vulnerabilities to senior management.
  • To obtain legal and regulatory approvals.
  • To define the scope, testing hours, and limitations of the test.

Question 9)
When conducting a penetration test, what is considered the primary goal of the escalation phase?

  • To escalate privileges on the target system.
  • To conduct ethical hacking principles.
  • To maintain access through backdoors or persistent scripts.
  • To exploit vulnerabilities.

Question 10)
What is the purpose of the Communication Plan in a penetration testing project?

  • To develop security policies.
  • To establish communication channels for reporting progress and findings.
  • To prioritize vulnerabilities.
  • To obtain permission to conduct the penetration test.

Course quiz: Cybersecurity tools and technologies Quiz Answers

Question 1)
One of the primary responsibilities of the blue team in cybersecurity is _______________ network traffic for suspicious activity.

  • Monitoring
  • Analyzing
  • Managing

Question 2)
Imagine you work for Sam’s Scoops as a cybersecurity analyst. You are part of the red team, what would be one of the primary objectives of the red team in cybersecurity?

  • Monitoring network traffic and detecting suspicious activity.
  • Developing software patches and updates.
  • Managing physical security for the organization.
  • Conducting ethical hacking and penetration testing to identify vulnerabilities.

Question 3)
Sam has expressed concerns about the security of Sam’s Scoops online platform. As a cybersecurity consultant working at Sam’s, you have been tasked with conducting the reconnaissance phase of the test, what are its primary activities?

  • Information gathering, footprinting, and scanning.
  • Enumeration, exploitation, and reporting.
  • Social engineering, malware analysis, and intrusion detection.
  • Vulnerability assessment, escalation, and remediation.

Question 4)
Which of the following tools or strategies are used for locating vulnerabilities in a target system’s configuration or software?

  • Network sniffing and social engineering.
  • Nessus and vulnerability scanning.
  • Firewall configuration and antivirus software.
  • Port scanning and banner grabbing.

Question 5)
Which of the following methods is primarily used to manipulate database queries?

  • SQL injection
  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)
  • Buffer overflow
  • Payload injection

Question 6)
One of the goals of the escalation stage in a penetration test is achieving __________.

  • privilege escalation
  • data exfiltration
  • vulnerability assessment

Question 7)
If you are tasked with the reporting and remediation stage of a penetration test in cybersecurity, what are the best practices that you would implement?

  • Share the report only with the IT department.
  • Provide specific and actionable recommendations.
  • Include a summary of the penetration tester’s background and qualifications.
  • Use only technical language in the report.

Question 8)
What is the goal of implementing the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

  • Evaluating financial risks in cybersecurity.
  • Documenting cybersecurity policies.
  • Decreasing the adaptability of an organization’s cybersecurity.
  • Improving threat detection and response capabilities.

Question 9)
You are tasked with conducting a black box test on Sam Scoops applications. The application, known as “SecureGuard,” is designed to manage user authentication and authorization for sensitive financial data.

What is the primary focus of black box testing during Sam’s Scoops’s SecureGuard application security assessment? Select all that apply.

  • Identifying potential vulnerabilities in the application’s source code.
  • Testing SecureGuard’s compatibility with various operating systems.
  • Assessing the efficiency of SecureGuard’s code implementation.
  • Evaluating the application’s functionality without knowledge of its internal workings.

Question 10)
You are a cybersecurity specialist tasked with conducting white box testing for a critical software application in Sam’s Scoops which deals with sensitive customer data. What would be the primary purpose of white box testing at Sam’s Scoops for their critical software application? Select all that apply.

  • To ensure that all possible execution paths within the software are covered.
  • To identify and remediate security flaws at the source code level.
  • To evaluate the software’s performance under various real-world conditions.
  • To subject the software to random data inputs to check its response.

Question 11)
What is the primary characteristic of grey box testing?

  • Gives you partial knowledge of the system’s internals.
  • Gives you zero knowledge of the system’s internals.
  • Focuses solely on the system’s functionality.
  • Gives you complete knowledge of the system’s internals.

Question 12)
How can Azure Firewall Premium IDPS reduce false positives?

  • By using intrusion prevention techniques.
  • By employing signature-based detection.
  • By increasing the number of alerts.
  • By blocking all incoming traffic.

Question 13)
Sam’s Scoops recently implemented Azure Firewall Premium IDPS to enhance its cybersecurity. If you were configuring the IDPS rules and policies on the IDPS, which options would be found in the IDPS tab of the Azure Firewall Premium policy settings? Select all that apply.

  • Manage signature rules.
  • Activate IPDS in “alert” mode or “alert and deny” mode.
  • Add specific IP addresses to the bypass list.
  • Configure private IP ranges.

Question 14)
What is the most likely action the IT manager at Sam’s Scoops would take in response to a potential DDoS attack alert from the network based IDPS?

  • Increase network bandwidth to accommodate the attack.
  • Disconnect the entire network to prevent further attacks.
  • Ignore the alert and continue normal network operations.
  • Block the IP address associated with suspicious traffic.

Question 15)
What is the primary purpose of a well-designed firewall strategy in Azure?

  • To reduce the cost of Azure services.
  • To simplify Azure management and deployment.
  • To increase network performance and speed.
  • To protect Azure resources from unauthorized access and cyber threats.

Question 16)
Which Azure Firewall feature allows you to control the order in which rules are applied?

  • Rule priorities
  • Rule conditions
  • Rule types
  • Rule actions

Question 17)
If you were designing the integration of network security groups (NSGs) and Azure Firewall in Microsoft Azure what would be your primary consideration?

  • To prioritize the rule order, avoid overlapping rules, and enable logging and monitoring.
  • To eliminate NSGs to avoid rule conflicts with Azure Firewall.
  • To integrate NSGs and Azure Firewall without any specific design considerations.
  • To focus solely on application-level filtering without considering network rules.

Question 18)
What encryption methods are used by a Point-to-Site VPN gateway connection for secure communication?

  • Both Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
  • Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) only
  • Point-to-Point Tunnelling Protocol (PPTP) only
  • Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) only

Question 19)
To give their Azure virtual network users safe access, Sam’s Scoops has developed a Point-to-Site VPN solution. The effective configuration and management of this VPN solution is the responsibility of Sam’s Scoops’ IT department. Select all that apply.

Which Point-to-Site (P2S) VPN connection authentication mechanism would work best for keeping Sam’s Scoops virtual network users safe, with regards to Windows, macOS, Android, iOS, and Linux devices? Select all that apply.

  • Active Directory Domain Server authentication
  • SMTP authentication
  • Azure Active Directory authentication
  • Certificate authentication

Question 20)
If you wanted to address vulnerabilities effectively in your organization, what is one of the strategies you could use from the vulnerability management process?

  • Prioritizing vulnerabilities based on their alphabetical order.
  • Ignoring vulnerabilities until a permanent solution is available.
  • Implementing additional security controls, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, or access controls.
  • Waiting for software vendors to release patches without any immediate action.

Question 21)
Sam’s Scoops is a growing company that uses Microsoft Azure for its cloud infrastructure. They are concerned about the security of their Azure environment and want to implement best practices for vulnerability management. The IT manager at Sam’s Scoops is studying the provided content to ensure that their Azure environment is well-protected against potential threats.

Which Azure security tool focuses on identity-based attacks and insider threats, using behavioral analytics and machine learning?

  • Azure Application Gateway
  • Microsoft Defender for Identity
  • Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF)
  • Azure Information Protection (AIP)

Question 22)
Which CLI tool is used for searching for specific patterns within text files, logs, and outputs from other tools, aiding in identifying relevant information?

  • Grep
  • Wireshark
  • Metasploit Framework
  • Burp Suite

Question 23)
If you wanted to retrieve a list of active virtual machines in your Azure environment, which of the following PowerShell commands would you use?

  • Get-AzKeyVault
  • Get-AZVM
  • Get-AZNetworkSecurityGroup
  • Get-AZSQLDatabase

Question 24)
Which of the following activities are not encouraged during penetration testing in Azure environments, according to Microsoft’s Rules of Engagement? Select all that apply.

  • Scanning other Azure customer’s assets.
  • Running vulnerability scanning tools on your Azure virtual machine.
  • Attempting phishing attacks on Microsoft’s employees.
  • Conducting distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks.

Question 25)
What is the primary objective of offensive techniques in the context of Azure penetration testing?

  • To develop an incident response plan.
  • To strengthen security measures and prevent unauthorized access.
  • To identify vulnerabilities and potential security gaps within a target environment.
  • To implement access control and identity management.

Question 26)
Sam’s Scoops is a rapidly growing company that relies on Microsoft Azure for its cloud infrastructure. As part of their ongoing security measures, they decide to conduct penetration testing on their Azure environment to identify vulnerabilities. Which of the following steps form part of the penetration testing process? Select all that apply.

  • Conduct penetration testing without any testing environment setup.
  • Choose penetration testing tools that align with Azure’s policies and security guidelines.
  • Obtain proper authorization and document the testing plan.
  • Select an appropriate testing approach, such as clear box testing.

Question 27)
Sam’s Scoops, a rapidly growing company, is preparing for a penetration testing exercise to ensure the security of its Azure resources. They have just configured an Automation Account in their Azure environment to automate various operations and management tasks. Now, they need to take the next steps in securing their resources.

What should Sam’s Scoops do after configuring their Automation Account in Azure for penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Create tags for the Automation account.
  • Set the network connectivity configuration to private access.
  • Skip the validation step and proceed with testing.
  • Review the Automation Account settings and deploy it.

Question 28)
Sam’s Scoops is planning to conduct a penetration test to identify the vulnerabilities of its web applications hosted on Azure. As the IT security manager, you are tasked with selecting an open-source penetration testing tool specifically designed for this purpose. Which tools fit this criteria? Select all that apply.

  • OWASP Zap
  • Metasploit framework
  • SQLMap
  • Hydra

Question 29)
Which steps are part of the process of web application penetration testing using Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell? Select all that apply.

  • Automating input validation tests.
  • Prioritizing vulnerabilities based on their potential impact.
  • Analyzing security headers.
  • Installing additional web application security tools.

Question 30)
Why is creating an Automation account important in the context of penetration testing in Azure Security Center (Defender for Cloud)?

  • To set the start time for penetration testing.
  • To configure the recurrence frequency.
  • To generate alert policies.
  • To execute automated penetration tests.

Question 31)
Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the blue team in cybersecurity?

  • Managing cloud infrastructure.
  • Developing security policies.
  • Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity.
  • Conducting penetration tests.

Question 32)
What is the primary objective of the red team in cybersecurity?

  • Developing security policies.
  • Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity.
  • Assessing regulatory compliance.
  • Identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in an organization’s defenses.

Question 33)
Imagine you are tasked with conducting the reconnaissance stage of penetration testing for an organization, which of the below best describes its main purpose?

  • To report on the progress of the penetration test.
  • To exploit vulnerabilities in the target system.
  • To gather valuable information about the target’s systems, applications, and users.
  • To identify potential attack vectors.

Question 34)
True or False: Nessus and vulnerability scanning are typically utilized to uncover vulnerabilities in a target system’s configuration or software.

  • True
  • False

Question 35)
Sam’s Scoops recently conducted a penetration test to assess the security of their internal systems. After completing the testing phases, they are now in the reporting and remediation stage.

What should be included in the report during this stage for Sam’s Scoops penetration test? Select all that apply.

  • A summary of the testing methodology employed during the penetration test.
  • A plan for future penetration tests.
  • A detailed list of vulnerabilities found during testing.
  • An appendix with screenshots and network diagrams.

Question 36)
What is the primary focus of white box testing?

  • Identifying potential vulnerabilities by examining the internal structure, design, and code.
  • Analyzing system functionality without knowledge of internal workings.
  • Testing the system’s functionality without any knowledge of its internal workings.
  • Manipulating the inputs and observing the outputs.

Question 37)
Which type of testing combines elements of both black box testing and white box testing?

  • Red box testing
  • Black box testing
  • Grey box testing
  • Clear box testing

Question 38)
How can Azure Firewall Premium IDPS reduce false positives?

  • By blocking all incoming traffic.
  • By employing signature-based detection.
  • By using intrusion prevention techniques.
  • By increasing the number of alerts.

Question 39)
What is the purpose of the bypass list in Azure IDPS?

  • To add specific IP addresses as safe zones.
  • To edit private IP ranges.
  • To remove all private IP ranges.
  • To list private IP ranges for identification.

Question 40)
If Sam’s Scoops implemented an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS) to protect its network infrastructure and critical assets. Which of the following would be a correct response by the IPDS to a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack? Select all that apply.

  • Engage a cybersecurity firm to investigate the attack and provide recommendations for network hardening.
  • Implement a failover system to redirect traffic to alternative servers during the attack.
  • Activate DDoS mitigation techniques like traffic filtering, rate limiting, and diverting traffic to absorb the attack.
  • Start a social media campaign to inform customers about the attack.

Question 41)
Sam’s Scoops is exploring key design principles and techniques for firewall implementation in Azure. If Sam wanted to implement traffic segmentation in their Azure environment, which of the following would best describe traffic segmentation’s main purpose?

  • Preventing lateral movement of threats and reducing the attack surface
  • Accelerating data transfer between virtual networks
  • Reducing the number of virtual networks
  • Ensuring backward compatibility with legacy systems

Question 42)
In Azure Firewall, which type of rule is based on fully qualified domain names (FQDNs)?

  • Source IP rules
  • Rule priorities
  • Application rules
  • Network rules

Question 43)
Sam’s Scoops IT team is currently in the process of enhancing network security to protect their Azure resources. They are currently integrating network security groups (NSGs) and Azure Firewall to optimize their security and traffic flow within their Azure environment.

What of the following is a key design consideration they must make when integrating the network security groups (NSGs) with Azure Firewall for network security in Microsoft Azure? Select all that apply.

  • Creating non-overlapping rules between NSGs and Azure Firewall
  • Enabling logging and monitoring on the on-premises firewall
  • Limiting the use of Azure Firewall
  • Ensuring rule prioritization

Question 44)
Sam’s Scoops is in the process of implementing a Point-to-Site (P2S) VPN gateway connection. Which of the following would best describe what key benefits and features a Point-to-Site (P2S) VPN gateway connection will bring to Sam’s Scoops? Select all that apply.

  • Integration with Azure services.
  • Support for only Windows operating systems.
  • Security and encryption.
  • Scalability and elasticity.

Question 45)
Sam’s Scoops has recently undergone a comprehensive cybersecurity assessment that revealed several vulnerabilities in their IT infrastructure. They are planning to address these vulnerabilities as part of its vulnerability management process. What is the first step Sam’s Scoops should take in their vulnerability management process?

  • Establish a risk tolerance policy.
  • Conduct a risk assessment of all vulnerabilities.
  • Apply patches and updates to all systems.
  • Identify vulnerabilities in its IT infrastructure.

Question 46)
Which Azure security tool focuses on protecting web applications from common web vulnerabilities and attacks, including SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS)?

  • Azure Information Protection (AIP)
  • Microsoft Defender for Identity
  • Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF)
  • Azure Application Gateway

Question 47)
To obtain details about Azure Key Vaults, you should use the ______________ PowerShell command.

  • Get-AZVM
  • Get-AzureADUser
  • Get-AzKeyVault

Question 48)
Which of the following is a potential consequence of not testing Azure resource security?

  • Increased vulnerability to cyberattacks
  • Improved network speed
  • Enhanced data encryption
  • Decreased cloud costs

Question 49)
Which of the following is an example of an offensive technique in Azure penetration testing?

  • Developing an incident response plan.
  • Encryption of data at rest and in transit.
  • Access control and identity management.
  • Vulnerability scanning.

Question 50)
Sam’s Scoops is a rapidly growing company that relies on Microsoft Azure for its cloud infrastructure. As part of their ongoing security measures, they decide to conduct penetration testing on their Azure environment to identify vulnerabilities. Which of the following steps form part of the penetration testing process? Select all that apply.

  • Select an appropriate testing approach, such as clear box testing.
  • Obtain proper authorization and document the testing plan.
  • Conduct penetration testing without any testing environment setup.
  • Choose penetration testing tools that align with Azure’s policies and security guidelines.

Question 51)
Which of the following are steps for configuring Azure resources for penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Creating various types of resources, such as virtual machines and databases.
  • Setting up auto-scaling for virtual machine instances.
  • Configuring identity and access management using Azure Active Directory and RBAC.
  • Configuring storage options and access controls.

Question 52)
What is the main objective of setting up Metasploit and other penetration testing frameworks on Azure?

  • To immediately start conducting penetration tests.
  • To create Azure administrator accounts.
  • To customize and prepare the framework for penetration testing on Azure resources.
  • To ensure compatibility with Azure’s security policies.

Question 53)
Which of the following web application security headers are analyzed during penetration testing with Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell?

  • Content Security Policy (CSP)
  • That’s correct. Content Security Policy (CSP) is an important security header analyzed during penetration testing.
  • HTTP Cache-Control
  • HTTP User-Agent
  • HTTP Content-Type

Question 54)
What is one of the primary objectives of the red team in cybersecurity?

  • Managing incident response procedures.
  • Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activity.
  • Identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in an organization’s defenses.
  • Conducting penetration tests.

Question 55)
You are tasked with the crucial enumeration stage of penetration testing. But what makes enumeration an essential phase in penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • It ensures that all vulnerabilities are patched immediately.
  • It helps testers identify weaknesses that potential attackers could exploit.
  • It allows testers to gather information about the target system, including its IP address, operating system, and open ports.
  • Enumeration helps testers prioritize areas of the system for further testing.

Question 56)
Sam’s recently conducted a penetration test to evaluate the security of their internal systems. After achieving privilege escalation during the penetration the team aimed to extract sensitive data from the compromised system. Which methods could they have used for data exfiltration? Select all that apply.

  • Network tunneling.
  • File transfer protocols like FTP, SCP, and SFTP.
  • Conducting phishing attacks on employees.
  • Exploiting known software vulnerabilities.

Question 57)
Why is it important to use clear and concise language in a cybersecurity penetration test report?

  • To add complexity to the report.
  • To ensure the report remains lengthy.
  • To simplify the technical content for all stakeholders.
  • To focus solely on technical audiences.

Question 58)
What is the primary goal of the tactics section in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

  • Providing a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques.
  • Listing the names of cyber threats.
  • Explaining the techniques used by adversaries.
  • Describing the impact of cyberattacks.

Question 59)
What is the primary focus of black box testing?

  • Analyzing internal code structure.
  • Debugging and optimizing the system.
  • Examining system functionality without knowledge of internal workings.
  • Conducting load testing.

Question 60)
In the Azure Firewall Premium policy, what does the alert and deny option mean when configuring IPDS mode?

  • It blocks harmful traffic without sending alerts.
  • It sends alerts and blocks harmful traffic.
  • It sends alerts but doesn’t block harmful traffic.
  • It neither sends alerts nor blocks harmful traffic.

Question 61)
Sam’s Scoops is interested in setting up firewall rules using Azure Firewall to enhance the security of its Azure environment. What types of rules would Azure Firewall offer for Sam’s Scoops to configure?

  • IP rules and port rules
  • Domain rules and protocol rules
  • Network rules and application rules
  • Inbound rules and outbound rules

Question 62)
Which authentication method for Point-to-Site VPN clients allows users to connect to Azure using their Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) credentials?

  • Certificate authentication
  • Active Directory Domain Server (AD DS) authentication
  • RADIUS server authentication
  • Azure AD authentication

Question 63)
What is the primary purpose of conducting vulnerability scanning in the vulnerability management process?

  • To continuously evolve and keep up with emerging threats and new vulnerabilities.
  • To identify potential vulnerabilities in networks, systems, and applications.
  • To identify all vulnerabilities in an organization’s environment.
  • To simulate attacks and attempt to exploit known vulnerabilities.

Question 64)
What is one of the key strategies for addressing vulnerabilities effectively in the Azure environment?

  • Implementing automated security controls to minimize human error.
  • Conducting security assessments and vulnerability scans only once a year.
  • Applying patches only when security updates are several months old.
  • Ignoring vulnerabilities until they are exploited.

Question 65)
Which of the following CLI tools are essential for conducting comprehensive security assessments in penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Wireshark – Network Protocol Analyzer
  • Malicious Software Removal Tool by Microsoft
  • Grep and Regular Expressions
  • Nmap – Network Mapping

Question 66)
Sam’s Scoops relies heavily on Microsoft Azure for its cloud computing needs. The company’s IT team is considering conducting penetration testing to assess the security of their Azure environment. What is the first step they should take before conducting penetration testing in their Azure environment?

  • Disable all security updates on Azure systems to identify vulnerabilities more easily.
  • Share their testing plan with other Azure customers to gather their insights.
  • Conduct a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack to assess Azure’s response capabilities.
  • Ensure that they have the necessary permissions from all stakeholders.

Question 67)
What is the primary goal of penetration testing in Microsoft Azure?

  • To exploit vulnerabilities in the Azure environment.
  • To deploy dedicated testing environments within Azure.
  • To simulate real-world cyberattacks and assess the system’s ability to withstand them.
  • To secure proper authorization for conducting tests.

Question 68)
Which penetration testing tool provides various exploitation tools for privileged escalation, packet sniffing, screen capture, and pivoting, making it modular and extensible?

  • Gobuster
  • Metasploit framework
  • SQLMap
  • Network Mapper (Nmap)

Question 69)
What is the purpose of configuring alert policies in Azure Security Center (Defender for Cloud) during penetration testing?

  • To create a schedule for penetration testing.
  • To specify the start time of the penetration test.
  • To publish the runbook.
  • To track and respond to security issues.

Question 70)
True or False: The blue team is primarily responsible for managing cloud infrastructure in cybersecurity.

  • True
  • False

Question 71)
During the reconnaissance stage of penetration testing, what activities are typically performed?

  • Exploiting vulnerabilities in the target system.
  • Gathering valuable information about the target’s systems, applications, and users.
  • Testing the target’s intrusion detection systems.
  • Conducting security awareness training for employees.

Question 72)
What is the primary purpose of Azure Firewall Premium IDPS?

  • To optimize cloud application performance.
  • To protect Azure resources from malicious traffic.
  • To manage cloud infrastructure.
  • To automate cloud resource provisioning.

Question 73)
Which Azure network topology is designed to centralize network services in a hub virtual network while connecting it to spoke virtual networks?

  • Azure Firewall with private endpoints
  • Virtual network peering
  • Hub and spoke
  • High availability zones

Question 74)
What is the advantage of using Active Directory Domain Server (AD DS) authentication for Point-to-Site VPN in Azure?

  • It allows users to connect from any device, including non-Windows devices.
  • It supports Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for added security.
  • It integrates with an organization’s existing domain credentials for authentication.
  • It eliminates the need for a RADIUS server for authentication.

Question 75)
What is the primary focus of vulnerability scanning during penetration testing in Azure?

  • Developing a penetration test report.
  • Simulating real-world cyberattacks.
  • Identifying common vulnerabilities such as misconfigurations and weak access controls.
  • Exploiting identified vulnerabilities.

Question 76)
The security team of Sam’s Scoops is planning to use Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell for web application penetration testing to strengthen their defenses. Which of the following tasks can be automated using Azure CLI and Azure PowerShell in web application penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • Identifying the attack surface of web applications.
  • Automating input validation tests to uncover vulnerabilities like SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS).
  • Simulating authentication bypass attempts to evaluate the strength of authentication and authorization mechanisms.
  • Conducting physical security assessments of data centers hosting Azure resources.

Question 77)
What is the primary goal of the escalation stage in a penetration test?

  • All of the above
  • Achieving privilege escalation
  • Consolidating access to systems
  • Extracting sensitive data

Question 78)
What is the role of the resource development tactic in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

  • Acquiring tools and resources needed to carry out an attack.
  • Hiding malicious activity from detection.
  • Executing malicious code on a target system.
  • Gaining higher privileges on a target system.

Question 79)
Sam’s Scoops takes cybersecurity seriously and decides to conduct penetration testing to ensure that its Azure environment is secure from potential threats. They hire a team of cybersecurity professionals who will perform offensive and defensive techniques to evaluate the security of their Azure environment.
What is the primary purpose of offensive techniques in Azure penetration testing? Select all that apply.

  • To implement measures that protect Azure environments from potential threats.
  • To identify vulnerabilities and potential security gaps within the Azure environment.
  • To develop an incident response plan.
  • To monitor network traffic for signs of malicious activity.

Question 80)
Azure supports __________ per gateway in a Point-to-Site VPN gateway connection.

  • up to 5,000 concurrent connections
  • up to 10,000 concurrent connections
  • up to 1,000 concurrent connections
  • unlimited concurrent connections

Question 81)
Which command can be used to retrieve information about Azure Active Directory users, including roles and group memberships?

  • Get-AzADUser
  • Get-AzLog
  • Get-AzKeyVault
  • Get-AzNetworkInterface

Question 82)
Sam’s Scoops is planning to implement recurring penetration tests using Azure Automation. You are responsible for setting up the necessary configurations. Which of the following steps forms part of the process that you follow to do this?

  • Run the penetration test on the selected resources.
  • Configure an Azure Automation account.
  • Create a runbook in Azure Automation.
  • Define a specific schedule for the penetration test.

Question 83)
Which white box testing technique involves subjecting the system to various inputs, including edge cases and malformed data, to identify potential vulnerabilities or weaknesses in input validation and error handling mechanisms?

  • Fuzz testing
  • Code review
  • Branch testing
  • Path testing

Question 84)
During black box testing, which step involves executing test cases and comparing actual results with expected results?

  • Defect reporting
  • Test case design
  • Requirement analysis
  • Test execution

Question 85)
What is the primary purpose of rogue access point detection in network security?

  • To identify unauthorized wireless access points.
  • To install additional security software on access points.
  • To enhance network speed and performance.
  • To block all wireless network access.

Question 86)
Sam’s has decided to conduct a penetration test to identify vulnerabilities and improve their security measures. As part of the penetration testing process, they reach the third stage: “Exploitation.” Which of the following best describes the primary goal of the exploitation stage in penetration testing?

  • To analyze the payload injected into the system.
  • To identify vulnerabilities in the target system.
  • To report vulnerabilities to the system owner.
  • To gain unauthorized access to the target system.

Question 87)
If you were conducting grey box testing, which of the following approaches can be used during penetration testing to evaluate a system’s security? Select all that apply.

  • API testing
  • Data flow analysis
  • Code review
  • Functional testing

Question 88)
What action can Azure Firewall Premium IDPS take when it detects malicious traffic?

  • It can optimize network performance.
  • It can notify the user.
  • It can block the user’s Azure resources.
  • It can log the event.

Question 89)
Which of the following CLI tools is specifically designed for web application security testing in penetration testing?

  • Wireshark
  • Burp Suite
  • Metasploit Framework
  • Network Mapper (Nmap)

You might also like: Cybersecurity Solutions and Microsoft Defender Quiz Answers + Review

My Review:

I recently completed the “Cybersecurity Tools and Technologies” course on Coursera, the final step in the Microsoft Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate series. This 4-module course focuses on the practical side of cybersecurity, especially penetration testing, system testing, and vulnerability management in a cloud environment. It provides a solid introduction to the tools and techniques used to evaluate and secure networks, including how to create and execute a penetration test plan.

I found the real-world examples and cloud-based scenarios particularly useful for understanding how security tools are applied in modern IT environments.

The course is beginner-friendly yet offers meaningful depth for anyone interested in cybersecurity testing. It also aligns well with the Microsoft SC-900 certification, making it a valuable resource if you’re looking to build both knowledge and credentials in the field.

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