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IBM JavaScript Backend Quiz Answers Guide

IBM JavaScript Backend

Hello friends! If you are learning the IBM JavaScript Backend Professional Certificate on Coursera, you’re in the right place! While going through this course, I realized many learners would benefit from a single, organized resource for all quiz answers and course materials. That’s why I created a dedicated web page where I post A to Z complete course quiz answers.

This page grows alongside my learning journey—every week, as I complete more lessons, I add new content to make it an ever-expanding, comprehensive study guide. My goal is to provide a resource that helps learners study more efficiently, track their progress, and confidently complete this professional certificate.

IBM JavaScript Backend Professional Certificate

Here’s a breakdown of the full course:

Table of Contents

Course 1 – Introduction to Software Engineering

Graded Quiz: The Software Development Lifecycle Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is the best description of software engineering?

  • Any activity related to software development.
  • The application of scientific principles to the organization of a software system.
  • The set of all activities related to software development.
  • The application of scientific principles to the design and creation of software.

Question 2)
Which of the following best describes a key advantage for a business to follow the SDLC?

  • It allows for creativity because of its ad-hoc approach to software development.
  • It gives development teams a process to follow to improve efficiency and reduce risks.
  • It defines all the roles of the development team.
  • It helps technical writers develop accurate documentation.

Question 3)
Which of the following best describes an activity that happens in the maintenance phase of the SDLC?

  • The coding process begins.
  • Code is thoroughly tested.
  • Fixing minor user interface issues.
  • The system requirements specification is written.

Question 4)
Which of the following best describes a beta release?

  • It is the first functioning version of a system released to a select group of stakeholders.
  • It is the most stable release.
  • It is intended for all users.
  • It meets all functional requirements.

Question 5)
Which statement best describes the Software Requirements Specification (SRS)?

  • It can be combined with the System Requirements Specification (SysRS) to form the User Requirements Specification (URS).
  • It is combined with the User Requirements Specification (URS) to form the System Requirements Specification (SysRS).
  • It primarily contains use cases.
  • It contains functional, external interface, and non-functional requirements.

Question 6)
Which of the following is an iterative approach to the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

  • Agile
  • Verification
  • Waterfall
  • V-shape

Question 7)
Which of the following best describes functional testing?

  • It is concerned with confirming that a recent change to the application is not adversely affecting existing functionality.
  • It tests application attributes like performance and security.
  • Its goal is to make sure the application is usable and accessible.
  • It tests application attributes like scalability and availability.

Question 8)
Which best describes black-box testing?

  • It is used to verify internal structure, design, and coding.
  • It is equivalent to regression testing.
  • It is equivalent to non-functional testing.
  • It is used to test inputs and outputs.

Question 9)
Which role is primarily responsible for designing the software’s interface?

  • Product owner
  • Software architect
  • UX designer
  • Stakeholder

Question 10)
Which of the following is a type of documentation that describes the expected features and functionality of the software system?

  • Design documentation
  • User documentation
  • Requirements
  • Technical documentation

Graded Quiz: Introduction to Software Development Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which technology is a front-end developer most likely to work with?

  • Databases
  • Java
  • SQL
  • HTML

Question 2)
Which of the following technologies can you use to ensure uniformity in look, feel, style, colors, font, and layouts on a website?

  • CSS
  • XML
  • JavaScript
  • HTML

Question 3)
Which of the following are used in back-end development?

  • SQL
  • CSS
  • LESS
  • HTML

Question 4)
Which of the following technologies provide a way for cloud apps to access resources from the back-end?

  • IDEs
  • APIs
  • Styles
  • Routes

Question 5)
Which of the following pair programming styles is a good way for a junior software engineer to learn from a more experienced colleague?

  • Ping-pong style
  • Driver style
  • Navigator style
  • Strong style

Question 6)
Which of the following is a development framework?

  • Git
  • JavaScript
  • Vue.js
  • Ruby

Question 7)
Which of the following statements about app development frameworks is correct?

  • Frameworks keep track of what changes were made when and by whom and resolve any conflicts between changes.
  • Frameworks provide a way to build and deploy applications.
  • Frameworks can be changed during any phase of development.
  • Frameworks provide standard programs and subroutines that you can use in your own code.

Question 8)
Which process automatically builds and tests your code?

  • Continuous integration
  • Continuous delivery
  • Continuous development
  • Continuous investigation

Question 9)
Which of the following is a build tool?

  • Homebrew
  • Babel
  • Pip
  • npm

Question 10)
Which of the following is an example of a software stack?

  • Chocolatey
  • Ruby on Rails
  • Maven
  • Conda

Graded Quiz: Basics of Programming Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is the generic term for referencing a program component such as a stored value, method, interface, or class by a custom-named label?

  • Variable
  • Container
  • Constant
  • Identifier

Question 2)
Which one of the following applies to interpreted programming languages?

  • Available to users who have the same operating system or a device that understands the same language
  • More difficult to write in, but creates faster applications
  • A smaller program, normally scripted code, that must be created and repeated every time the code is run
  • Better for programs installed on the computer or device

Question 3)
Which one of the following applies to a compiled programming language compared to an interpreted language?

  • Creates a smaller program, normally using scripted code
  • Better for websites and smaller processes that need to be repeated
  • Takes longer to write the code, but it runs faster
  • Easier to learn and use, but requires an interpreter that can translate the source code into machine code

Question 4)
Which one of the following is an example of a low-level programming language?

  • SQL
  • Python
  • Pascal
  • ARM

Question 5)
Which of the following is a type of programming logic with only two values, “true” or “false”, and is used in both branching and looping programming logic?

  • Branching statements
  • “if-then-else” statement
  • Boolean expression
  • “And-do-while” loop

Question 6)
What are the three key standpoints for organizing code?

  • Maintainability, accessibility, and scalability
  • Readability, scalability, and accessibility
  • Readability, maintainability, and scalability
  • Readability, maintainability, and accessibility

Question 7)
Which of the following is also often referred to as a scripting language?

  • An assembly programming language
  • An interpreted programming language
  • A compiled programming language
  • A query language

Question 8)
Which of the following is a type of looping programming logic?

  • if
  • goto
  • while
  • switch

Question 9)
Which of the following is the best type of identifier for a data item whose value does not change?

  • Array
  • Constant
  • Variable
  • Vector

Question 10)
Which of the following is a software methodology that focuses on objects rather than functions?

  • Modular programming
  • Extreme programming
  • OOP
  • SDLC

Graded Quiz: Software Architecture, Design, and Deployment Topologies Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following best describes software architecture?

  • It describes how the application should be coded.
  • It represents the earliest design decisions.
  • It captures implementation details.
  • The choice of technology stack drives the software architecture.

Question 2)
Which of the following are artifacts that result from designing the software architecture?

  • Software requirements specification (SRS)
  • UML diagrams
  • Administrator user guide
  • Test cases

Question 3)
Components in a well-structured design should be _______.

  • loosely constrained
  • tightly cohesive
  • tightly coupled
  • loosely cohesive

Question 4)
Which of the following is an advantage of using UML diagrams when designing software architecture?

  • They all use JavaScript.
  • They explain which methods should be included when coding an object.
  • They serve to bring new team members up to speed quickly.
  • They describe which parameters should be passed when instantiating an object.

Question 5)
Which of the following best describes encapsulation?

  • Bundling data and methods to hide an internal state, so a component’s specific implementation is not exposed.
  • Designing a component so it operates in different environments.
  • A component should be easily replaced with another component.
  • A component’s design so it doesn’t have dependencies on other components.

Question 6)
Which of the following best describes a service?

  • A focus on the decomposition of a design into logical components.
  • It is a type of object.
  • A service defines, composes, and implements loosely coupled independent components so they work together to create an application.
  • A unit of functionality that focuses on a solution to a business need, is deployed independently, and is reused by multiple systems.

Question 7)
Which statement is true regarding a 2-tier architecture?

  • A 2-tier architecture consists of a decentralized network of nodes that are both clients and servers.
  • The interface resides on client machines and makes requests to a server for data or services.
  • The two different tiers are the application tier and the data tier.
  • A 2-tier architecture consists of producers and consumers of events.

Question 8)
Which of the following architecture patterns are mutually exclusive?

  • Three-tier and microservices
  • Microservices and event-driven
  • Peer-to-peer and event-driven
  • Peer-to-peer and two-tier

Question 9)
Which of the following environments is intended for developers to use while they are actively coding the application?

  • Development
  • QA
  • Production
  • Staging

Question 10)
Which of the following is a security device that monitors traffic between an internal and an external network?

  • Router
  • Firewall
  • Load balancer
  • Web server

Graded Quiz: Job Opportunities and Skillsets in Software Engineering Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is the best description of a data integration layer?

  • It applies real-world business rules to data in a solution.
  • It stores all of the data for your solution.
  • It accesses and loads data from a variety of sources.
  • It enables users to interact with your solution.

Question 2)
Complete the following. Software engineers ….

  • Design and develop software that solves real-world problems.
  • Develop and maintain data architectures.
  • Design and implement network systems.
  • Use software solutions to solve real-world problems.

Question 3)
Which of the following is an example of a hard skill?

  • Interpersonal skills
  • Time management
  • Open to feedback
  • Programming

Question 4)
Which of the following is an attribute of a soft skill?

  • Measurable
  • Quantifiable
  • Transferable
  • Certifiable

Question 5)
The US Bureau of Labor Statistics predicts approximately what percent growth for software developers, analysts, and tests from 2020-2030?

  • 22%
  • 2%
  • 12%
  • 32%

Question 6)
A technical career path is a good choice if you:

  • Enjoy managing people
  • Enjoy supporting team members
  • Enjoy solving problems
  • Enjoy mentoring others

Question 7)
Who is most likely to work alongside graphic artists and sound technicians?

  • A games developer
  • A full-stack engineer
  • A DevOps engineer
  • A mobile app developer

Question 8)
True of false. Learning on the job and developing new skills is an important part of a software engineer’s role.

  • True
  • False

Question 9)
Which role is responsible for developing code to test the functionality of a software solution?

  • A front-end engineer
  • A back-end engineer
  • A security engineer
  • A quality assurance engineer

Question 10)
What is the overarching purpose of the software engineering code of ethics?

  • To serve the public good.
  • To make software user-friendly.
  • To improve the software development process.
  • To improve the quality of software used in businesses.

Graded Quiz: Final Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is a code storage tool?

  • HTML
  • Code Editor
  • Git
  • IDE

Question 2)
Which of the following technologies adds more styles and function to CSS?

  • HTML
  • MORE
  • LESS
  • SASS

Question 3)
Which of the following statements is true regarding pair programming?

  • Pair programming requires two developers to be in the same physical location.
  • Most developers find pair programming to be an unproductive use of their time.
  • Pair programming is a type of agile development where two developers plan and discuss their ideas as they create a solution.
  • Pair programming always consists of one developer typing in the code while the other is reviewing the code as it’s written.

Question 4)
Which of the following do version control systems help you keep track of?

  • Errors in the code.
  • Who changed the code.
  • Bug reports.
  • Program flow.

Question 5)
Which type of software engineer develops the software that users interact with?

  • Back-end engineers
  • Front-end engineer
  • Systems developer
  • Network engineer

Question 6)
Which of the following is an example of a hard skill?

  • Problem solving
  • Cloud computing
  • Communication
  • Adaptability

Question 7)
Which of the following are reasons for the high demand for software engineers?

  • There’s a lack of people interested in the field.
  • Most organizations need software applications and websites.
  • Many software engineers are retiring.
  • Lots of software engineers are leaving the industry.

Question 8)
A senior software engineer often:

  • Takes responsibility for the overall architecture and design of a product.
  • Mentors other software engineers.
  • Identifies hiring needs for a company.
  • Monitors the requirements for corporate technologies.

Question 9)
Which of the following is an advantage of using the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

  • Respond to changing requirements
  • Increases risks
  • Team members share the same roles and responsibilities
  • Solve problems during the coding phase

Question 10)
Which software development process verifies that the software matches established requirements and is free from bugs?

  • Testing
  • Coding
  • Design
  • Debugging

Question 11)
Which of the following specifications specifies policy and regulation requirements?

  • User Requirements Specification (URS)
  • Application Requirements Specification (ARS)
  • Software Requirements Specification (SRS)
  • System Requirements Specification (SysRS)

Question 12)
Which of the following software development methodologies easily handles changing requirements and enables feedback to be regularly incorporated into the solution?

  • Sequential
  • Agile
  • Waterfall
  • V-shape model

Question 13)
Fill in the blank. An attribute of an object is called a __.

  • instance
  • class
  • blueprint
  • property

Question 14)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a component?

  • Extensible
  • Revisable
  • Context-specific
  • Repeatable

Question 15)
Which type of architecture is a computing model in which a server hosts, delivers, and manages most of the resources and services delivered to a client?

  • Microservices
  • Peer-to-peer
  • 2-tier
  • 3-tier

Question 16)
Which environment is intended for use by all users?

  • Development
  • Staging
  • QA
  • Production

Question 17)
Which one of the following is an example of an interpreted programming language?

  • C++
  • JavaScript
  • Java
  • C

Question 18)
What four key database operations does the acronym CRUD stand for?

  • Correct, Read, Update, Detain
  • Create, Read, Undo, Detain
  • Correct, Randomize, Undo, Delete
  • Create, Read, Update, Delete

Question 19)
The “While” keyword is used to perform which of the following type of programming logic?

  • Loop
  • For
  • Branch
  • If

Question 20)
What is the name of a special type of identifier that you can use to reference multiple program elements?

  • Constant
  • Container
  • Identifier
  • Variable

Course 2 – Introduction to HTML, CSS, & JavaScript

Graded Quiz: HTML Overview Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following statements embeds an image in an HTML document?

  • <image>link_to_image</image>
  • <figure src=”image URL” alt=”alternate text”>image name</figure>
  • <img src=”image URL” alt=”alternate text”>
  • <img href=”image URL” alt =”alternate text”>image name</img>

Question 2)
When defining a hyperlink (<a>), which attribute is used to specify the destination address?

  • ref
  • src
  • target
  • href

Question 3)
How are comments written in HTML?

  • “””This is a comment”””
  • #This is a comment
  • <!– This is a comment –>
  • /This is a comment/

Question 4)
Which tag preserves the spaces and line breaks of a given text when displayed?

  • <pre>
  • <p>
  • <section>
  • <label>

Question 5)
Which style is given priority, when multiple styles are specified for a single element?

  • Inline style
  • External style sheet
  • Browser default
  • Internal style sheet

Question 6)
Which tag CANNOT be used as a container for text?

  • <body>
  • <h1>
  • <br>
  • <p>

Question 7)
What is the <br> tag used for?

  • To change the text color to brown
  • To make text bold
  • To add a line break
  • To change the border

Question 8)
Which is the universal selector in CSS?

  • ?
  • @
  • *

Question 9)
Which tag is used to create an ordered list?

  • <ul>
  • <ol>
  • <orderedlist>
  • <li>

Question 10)
Which selector helps to select all elements of a document, except paragraphs?

  • :not(p)
  • :!(p)
  • :except(p)
  • :n(p)

Graded Quiz: CSS Overview & HTML5 Elements

Question 1)
You’ve applied an external CSS file and used inline style for a few elements to style a webpage. However, one element does not reflect the external style rules. What could have caused this issue on the webpage?

  • Internal CSS, applied within the “<style>” attribute in HTML markup
  • An external CSS file
  • Inline CSS, placed directly in each HTML element
  • Whichever way is specified in the HTML markup

Question 2)
A company is designing a website that needs to look good on both desktops and mobile devices. Which of the following statements about fluid and fixed layouts are correct? Select all that apply.

  • Fixed layouts use percentage-based dimensions for consistent element sizing.
  • Fixed layouts remain the same size regardless of the viewport dimensions.
  • All modern websites should only use fluid layouts for consistency.
  • A fluid layout adjusts element widths proportionally based on the screen size.

Question 3)
A user fails to submit a form on the website. It shows only the field that is already filled as an example in a light grey color. However, the example text disappears on focus. What is the possible bug here?

  • type= “tel” is the only value.
  • The field misses required attributes
  • Value has incorrect email format.
  • Unsupportive input type= “color”

Question 4)
You are working on a responsive web design using a CSS framework and need to apply styles based on different states, such as hover or focus. To achieve this, you use a modifier. What is the purpose of a modifier?

  • A technique for altering CSS styles applied to an HTML element
  • A type of button that enables users to edit form content
  • A specialized class that adjusts an element’s appearance by applying CSS based on a specified condition
  • A term used for a JavaScript class that dynamically updates webpage content

Question 5)
You are writing a self-contained and meaningful blog using HTML5. Which of the following tags is the most suitable?

  • <article>
  • <section>
  • <details>
  • <aside>

Question 6)
In a web form, you are asking users to enter their age, limited to 5 to 25 years only. Which HTML5 attributes has the developer used to limit the age field?

  • list
  • range
  • number
  • tel

Question 7)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a component framework?

  • Increase in the download size of the HTML markup
  • Limited components to only what the framework provides
  • Difficult to maintain a uniform style throughout the website
  • HTML markup is more verbose since styles mix with content

Question 8)
Which tag is used to represent an independent item of content in a document, which can be meaningful on its own?

  • <details>
  • <div>
  • <article>
  • <section>

Question 9)
A web designer wants to change the font and background color for all headings on the website. Which technology will he use?

  • Flash
  • JavaScript
  • HTML
  • CSS

Question 10)
You’ve embedded a chart using the figure element in your webpage. Now you want to add a descriptive title directly in the chart. Which HTML5 tag will you use to complete this task?

  • Footer
  • Header
  • Figcaption
  • Figure

Graded Quiz:

Question 1)
In the following declaration, what is the type of the variable ‘pi’?

  • string
  • char
  • number
  • float

Question 2)
How do you define an array called array1 in JavaScript?

  • var array1 = new Array((1,2,3))
  • var array1 = new Array[1,2,3]
  • var array1 = [1,2,3]
  • var array1 = (1,2,3)

Question 3)
What does the following statement do?

var ndate = new Date();

  • Assigns the current Greenwich Mean Time to ndate
  • Returns an error
  • Assigns the current local time to ndate
  • Assigns an empty string with the properties of dates to ndate

Question 4)
Which DOM function returns a node object matching a div with an id value “example_id”?

  • document.getElementById(div, “example_id”)
  • div.getValueOf(“example_id”)
  • element.getNodeById(“example_id”)
  • document.getElementById(“example_id”)

Question 5)
How are numbers converted to strings?

  • (123).toString()
  • (123).string
  • string(123)
  • toString(123)

Question 6)
What is the value of ‘total’ after the following statement is executed?

var total = 10 + 1 + " 3";

  • “113”
  • “1013”
  • 14
  • This results in an error

Question 7)
What would the alert be, when the following code is executed?

var a = new String("Hello");  
var b = "Hello";  

if (a === b) {  
  alert("Same");  
} else {  
  alert("Different");  
}
  • Same
  • Different
  • It would not give any alert as it is an error
  • None of the above

Question 8)
Which of the following is the proper way to create a for loop?

  • loop (for i = minVal; i < maxVal; i++) { … }
  • for (var i = minVal; i++; i < maxVal) { … }
  • for (var i = minVal; i < maxVal; i++) { … }
  • for (i < maxVal) { … }

Question 9)
Select all of the following which are proper ways to add a color property to a custom Car object.

  • Modify the code of the Car object directly to add a color parameter in the constructor
  • Car.color = “Red”
  • Car.prototype.color = “Red”
  • Car.prototype(Color, “Red”)

Question 10)
Which of the following is not an event binder in JavaScript?

  • onclick
  • onload
  • onhover
  • onmouseover

Course 3 – Getting Started with Git and GitHub

Graded Quiz: Git and GitHub Fundamentals Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What is the relation between Git and GitHub?

  • GitHub is an open-source tool used to create Git.
  • GitHub is a program required for version control on Git.
  • GitHub is an online hosting service for Git repositories.
  • GitHub is a main section in the Git project workflow.

Question 2)
Which of the following describes a repository?

  • A data structure that stores documents and source code
  • A collection of user accounts that are connected to a pull request
  • A basic unit of storage in Git that cannot be changed
  • A plain text file that explains the purpose of a project

Question 3)
What is the purpose of a license?

  • To describe the purpose of the project
  • To express how people can use your code
  • To establish a secure remote login between computers
  • To record all changes made to a repository

Question 4)
What is the role of “commit” in GitHub?

  • To pull requests
  • To merge
  • To undo changes
  • To save changes

Question 5)
What type of version control system is Git?

  • Remote
  • Centralized
  • Distributed
  • Local

Question 6)
Which of the following statements is associated with a working directory?

  • Contains the files and subdirectories on the computer that are associated with a Git repository
  • A separate line of development that allows one to work independently
  • Copy of a repository
  • Contains project folders that are set up for version control

Question 7)
What happens if you make a change on a repository branch that you don’t own?

  • GitHub makes a pull request
  • GitHub issues a push request for the owner.
  • GitHub generates an error message.
  • GitHub undoes the changes.

Graded Quiz: Git Commands and Managing GitHub Projects Quiz Answers

Question 1)
You need to run three commands to push local changes to the GitHub repository. Which command will you use when your changes are ready to be moved to the GitHub repository?

  • git remove -v
  • git push
  • git commit -m
  • git add

Question 2)
What are three commonly used commands for working with remote repositories?

  • open, close, send
  • push, pull, fetch
  • open, edit, push
  • create, delete, copy

Question 3)
When managing forks, which command can you use to fetch and merge the remote branch in a single step?

  • git fetch upstream
  • git pull downstream
  • git pull <upstream>
  • git merge upstream/main

Question 4)
Which of the following commands is used to make a branch active?

  • git branch
  • git add
  • git checkout
  • git commit

Question 5)
Which command can a developer use to keep up-to-date with the upstream?

  • git pull <upstream> and git fetch <upstream>
  • git push
  • git request pull
  • git revert

Question 6)
In Git workflow, which step involves creating a separate workspace for making changes and developing features without interfering with the main codebase?

  • Initializing a Git repository in your project’s local directory
  • Selecting and moving files to the staging area
  • Performing an initial commit after selecting the required files
  • Creating a branch from the main repository and working on the branch

Question 7)
Which of the following commands helps you to view the commit history?

  • git checkout
  • git commit
  • git log
  • git history

Course 4 – JavaScript Programming Essentials

Module 1 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What helps you to check values, debug errors, and see the results of your code?

  • Events
  • DOM
  • Pop-Up Dialogs
  • console.log()

Question 2)
What primitive data type can you use to represent a true or false value in JavaScript?

  • Undefined
  • String
  • Boolean
  • Null

Question 3)
What symbol in JavaScript calculates the remainder of a quotient of two integers?

  • /
  • %

Question 4)
Which conditional statement in JavaScript allows you to compare a value against multiple possible case values?

  • switch
  • else if statement
  • for
  • while

Question 5)
What do you often use the ++ operator in JavaScript for?

  • To increment a value by one in a loop
  • To check and see if one value is not equal to another
  • To add values together
  • Summation

Question 6)
Consider the following function:

function add (a, b) {
  return a + b;
}

What is the name of this function?

  • a and b
  • add
  • a+b
  • return

Question 7)
Consider the following function:

function add (a, b) {
  return a + b;
}

Which function shows an equivalent function but is written in ECMA format?

  • const add = (a, b) => a + b;
  • const add = (a + b) => a, b;
  • var add = (a, b) => a, b;
  • var add = (a, b) => a+b;

Question 8)
Which of the following statements is true with regard to function closure?

  • Closures allow you to create global variables.
  • Closures can make code more readable and self-explanatory by allowing you to use functions before they are defined in the code.
  • Closures can be defined at any point within their containing scope, regardless of the order in which they are called.
  • Closures allow you to encapsulate data within a function’s scope, creating a private environment for variables.

Question 9)
Which statement is true about hoisted functions?

  • You should use function hoisting for data encapsulation.
  • Function hoisting allows you to call a function before it is declared.
  • You can hoist a function that is assigned to a variable.
  • Function hoisting allows you to maintain access to variables from their contained scope.

Question 10)
Which of the following JavaScript events gets triggered when the value of an input element changes?

  • keydown
  • change
  • onclick
  • input

Module 2 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
How are elements in a JavaScript array accessed?

  • With the help of modern methods like forEach, map, filter
  • By performing operations on the array
  • With the help of its index or position in the array
  • With the help of two-dimensional data in applications

Question 2)
What does the length property of an array in JavaScript represent?

  • The number of elements in the first half of the array
  • Sum of all array elements
  • Width of arrays
  • Number of elements in the array

Question 3)
Which JavaScript array method is ideal for performing a specific action for each element without creating a new array?

  • Replace Find()
  • map()
  • forEach()
  • filter()

Question 4)
What indices do you need to provide to access a specific element in a 2D array?

  • The column index
  • Either row or column index
  • Both row and column indices
  • The row index

Question 5)
What is the purpose of the nested loops in the given code for traversing a 2D array?

for (let i = 0; i < grid.length; i++) {
  for (let j = 0; j < grid[i].length; j++) {
    console.log(`Element at (${i}, ${j}): ${grid[i][j]}`);
  }
}
  • To filter out specific elements in array
  • To store and process images
  • To manage data in spreadsheets
  • To perform operations on each element or row

Question 6)
Which scenario is suitable for using object literals in JavaScript?

  • Creating multiple instances of a class
  • Storing individual customer orders with unique details
  • Defining shared properties and methods
  • Working with object-oriented programming concepts

Question 7)
Which of the following is a common, powerful way to store and manage structured data in JavaScript?

  • An array of objects
  • Nested array
  • Bracket notation
  • Dot notation

Question 8)
What is the purpose of Template literals in strings?

  • To join two strings
  • To extract specific portions of string based on character positions
  • To format strings
  • To determine length of strings

Question 9)
What is the primary purpose of the + operator in JavaScript when used with strings?

  • To ascertain the length of a string
  • To search for substrings within a string
  • To combine or join two or more strings together
  • To access individual characters within a string

Question 10)
Which element in the code below displays “Random Quote Generator” as the page title?

<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
  <head>
    <title>Random Quote Generator</title>
  </head>
  <body>
    <h1>Random Quote Generator</h1>
    <p id="quoteDisplay"></p>
    <button onclick="generateRandomQuote()">Get Quote</button>
  </body>
</html>
  • <h1>
  • <title>
  • <button>
  • <p>

Module 3 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is a statement you place directly into your code to halt its execution and trigger the browser’s debugger programmatically?

  • console.log breakpoint
  • try-catch block
  • debugger statement

Question 2)
What should you input into a catch statement as a parameter?

  • An error object
  • The value returned from the try statement
  • A boolean
  • A string

Question 3)
Look at the HTML code below:

<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head>
  <title>Demo Example</title>
</head>
<body>
  <div>
    <a href="https://www.demo.com">Click Here</a>
    <h1>Heading Tag</h1>
  </div>
</body>
</html>

When the browser creates the DOM representation of this page’s structure, what type of node is <h1>?

  • Text node
  • Attribute node
  • Element node
  • Document node

Question 4)
Say this is your HTML document:

<!DOCTYPE html>
<html>
<head> </head>
<body>
  <div id="myDiv" class="example">
    <p>This is a paragraph</p> == $0
    <!-- This is a comment -->
    <a href="https://www.example.com">Click me</a>
  </div>
  <script> var documentNode = document; console.log(documentNode); </script>
  <script></script>
</body>
</html>

If you navigate to the anchor tag that reads

<p>This is a paragraph</p>

and enter $0.textContent into the developer console, what would you expect the output to read?

  • This is a paragraph
  • <p>This is a paragraph</p>

Question 5)
Examine the code snippet below, which belongs to an HTML document:

<h2>Heading 2</h2>
<p>This is a paragraph.</p>
<p>This is another paragraph.</p>
<script>
  const paragraphElements = document.getElementsByTagName('p');
</script>

What should the output of this code be?

console.log(paragraphElements[1]);
  • <p>This is another paragraph.</p>
  • This is another paragraph.
  • This is a paragraph.
  • <p>This is a paragraph.</p>

Question 6)
Which of the following can you use the Browser Object Model (BOM) to do?

  • Open new browser windows or tabs
  • Modify text
  • Dynamically manipulate HTML elements
  • Update attributes

Question 7)
Which of the following functions is part of the Browser Object Model (BOM)?

  • getElementById()
  • history.back()
  • addEventListener()
  • querySelector()

Question 8)
What does this DOM method expect in the selector parameter?

containerElement.querySelector(selector)
  • A NodeList
  • An HTML element
  • An array index
  • A CSS selector

Question 9)
In the DOM, what is the primary function of the childNodes property?

  • Returns the first child node of a container element.
  • Returns a NodeList containing the parent nodes of the specified child element.
  • Returns a NodeList containing all child nodes of an element.
  • Returns the last child node of a container element.

Question 10)
Which of the following is a property of the Element class in the DOM?

  • head
  • style
  • cookie
  • body

Module 4 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
It is a lightweight data-interchange format that is easy for machines to parse and generate.

  • JSON
  • API
  • HTML
  • XML

Question 2)
In JSON, what is the type of data interchange format?

  • Integer-based
  • Key value-based
  • Image-based
  • Text-based

Question 3)
What is synchronous programming?

  • Synchronous programming is useful for handling operations that may take some time to complete.
  • Synchronous programming in JavaScript refers to the execution of code in a sequential and blocking manner.
  • Synchronous programming allows you to execute code without blocking the main execution thread.
  • Synchronous programming enables tasks to run concurrently.

Question 4)
What are the Promises in asynchronous programming?

  • Promises are functions that are passed as arguments to other functions and are executed at a later time.
  • Promises continuously check the message queue for tasks.
  • Promises allow you to write asynchronous code in a more synchronous-looking style.
  • Promises are objects that represent the eventual completion of an asynchronous operation.

Question 5)
Which one of the following is not a feature of XMLHttpRequest (XHR)?

  • To facilitate communication between computers
  • To fetch data from external APIs or servers
  • To handle responses
  • To create an XHR object

Question 6)
It represents a value that may not be available yet but will be in the future.

  • A Promise
  • A data structure
  • An event loop
  • A callback

Question 7)
It is a Promise state when the asynchronous operation is completed and the result is available.

  • Fulfilled
  • Accepted
  • Rejected
  • Pending

Question 8)
Which one of the following methods is used to update or replace data at the specified resource?

  • POST method
  • GET method
  • PUT method
  • PATCH method

Question 9)
Which one of the following components of fetch() API is used for error handling?

  • URL
  • .catch()
  • .then()
  • Option

Question 10)
It provides a simple and consistent API for making asynchronous HTTP requests to interact with other web services.

  • Axios
  • Web page
  • Built-in web API
  • HTTP Method

Course 5 – Developing Back-End Apps with Node.js and Express

Week 1 – Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is a back-end technology?

  • Browser
  • CSS
  • HTML
  • Web API

Question 2)
What quality makes it possible for you to run JavaScript applications without compiling?

  • You can use a text editor to develop JavaScript applications.
  • JavaScript is an interpreted language.
  • All modern browsers support JavaScript.
  • The language syntax resembles Java.

Question 3)
Which of the following applications intercepts the call when JavaScript sends a web service request to the Node.js server?

  • REST Web Service
  • JSON
  • Enterprise Java
  • CSS
  • REST Web Service

Question 4)
Which of the following is a difference between ES and CommonJS modules?

  • CommonJS is a JavaScript language whereas ES is a module specification
  • CommonJS module files use a .mjs extension whereas ES modules use .js
  • CommonJS modules are written in JavaScript whereas ES modules are not
  • ES modules use the import() statement whereas CommonJS modules use require().

Question 5)
How do you handle operation results with Node.js?

  • Write callback functions to handle results when the operations complete
  • Use blocking on asynchronous I/O operations
  • Create an instance of a web server application
  • Specify a relative path to the Node.js script from the module directory

Question 6)
What do you use the http.createServer function for?

  • To develop an anonymous function to handle requests and responses
  • To import a Node.js module
  • To create an instance of a web server
  • To specify a main script for your module

Question 7)
Which core Node.js module can be used for input and output (I/O)?

  • URL
  • util
  • http
  • fs

Question 8)
Which is an aspect of Node Package Manager (NPM)?

  • It creates a package.json file in the project’s root directory
  • It manages the versioning of source code
  • It writes metadata to a package.json file
  • It functions as a command line interface for installing packages

Question 9)
What do you use the require function for?

  • To develop an anonymous function to handle requests and responses
  • To import a Node.js module
  • To create an instance of a web server
  • To specify a main script for your module

Question 10)
What happens when a module does not have a package.json file?

  • The require statement assumes that scripts have a file extension of js.
  • Node.js assumes that the main class is named index.js.
  • There is no module manifest.
  • The relative path to the Node.js script changes to an absolute path from the module directory

Week 2 – Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What best describes the network operations that Node.js makes?

  • Non-blocked operations return immediately without added processing time on the server
  • Blocked operations return immediately without added processing time on the server
  • Non-blocked operations return in a synchronized manner with added processing time on the server
  • Applications block every network operation to complete at the same time on the server

Question 2)
Before the Node.js framework receives the HTTP response message from the remote web server, it immediately returns a result for the http.request function call. What does this result state?

  • A request is in progress.
  • The return message will be sent successfully.
  • The callback function was called successfully.
  • The response message will be sent successfully.

Question 3)
What parameter is optional in an HTTP request?

  • Location function parameter
  • Callback function parameter
  • Resource variable parameter
  • Event variable parameter

Question 4)
What object do Node.js modules in the SDK pass as the first parameter in a callback function?

  • Location
  • Identity
  • Destination
  • Error

Question 5)
What do you pass back in the callback handler to indicate a successful return?

  • Empty string
  • 404 status code
  • Null object
  • Error

Question 6)
Which function calls the resultCallback callback function to return results to the main application?

  • http.request()
  • aggregate_context()
  • result()
  • step()

Question 7)
Why can inversion of control be an issue when using callbacks?

  • Inversion of control creates the need for nested callbacks
  • Inversion of control is used when something needs to be done sequentially which makes code readability difficult
  • Callbacks sometimes hand over control to third-party code which can make errors hard to identify
  • Inversion of control uses promises which are difficult to implement

Question 8)
JSON is the standard format for API data exchange. What relationship does JSON have with Node.js?

  • JSON_SET
  • Metadata file
  • Standard representation of native JavaScript objects
  • Common data model folder

Question 9)
When an error occurs, which state is the promise at?

  • Pending
  • Rejected
  • Aborted
  • Resolved

Question 10)
The axios package handles HTTP requests in Node.js and returns a promise object. The promise object has a method that is called after the promise completes. What method does the promise object use?

  • or
  • else
  • if
  • then

Week 3 – Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
The Node.js framework doesn’t provide many features for building web apps. What do developers rely on to extend Node.js features?

  • JavaScript
  • Timely updates
  • External libraries and packages
  • JSON

Question 2)
One disadvantage of manual parsing is that string matching ignores the XML data structure. However, depending on XML data complexity, string matching might be more efficient than what?

  • An XML attribute structure

Question 3)
Which web application framework is based on the Node.js runtime environment?

  • JSON
  • XML-JS
  • Async.js
  • Express

Question 4)
The Node.js framework treats HTTP requests at a lower network level. In contrast, Express implements an app class for what purpose?

  • Access a URL
  • Map to a web resource path
  • Parse through a network path
  • Lookup web services

Question 5)
What do you call to create a web server object to listen for incoming requests on a port?

  • http.name
  • http.view
  • app.request
  • app.listen

Question 6)
Which kind of task is middleware most useful for?

  • Performing large calculations
  • Error handling
  • Routing
  • Parsing strings

Question 7)
Which type of authentication is widely used for password recovery by providing a magic link to the user?

  • Single Sign On
  • Token-based
  • Session-based
  • Passwordless

Question 8)
Which statement regarding the jsonwebtoken.verify() method is true?

  • It is used to return an HTTP status code
  • It is used to generate a JSON web token
  • It is used to verify a JSON web token
  • It is used to return a response

Question 9)
Which library and module are suited for black-box testing REST APIs?

  • Express/TestAPI
  • Postman/TestAPI
  • Koa/SuperTest
  • Mocha/SuperTest

Course 6 – Get Started with Cloud Native, DevOps, Agile, and NoSQL

Module 1 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following cloud deployment models makes use of cloud services through the open internet on cloud provider-owned hardware?

  • Hybrid model
  • Public cloud
  • Community cloud
  • Private cloud

Question 2)
What does Broad Network Access mean?

  • Monitoring and measuring the resources.
  • Accessing more resources at the time of need
  • Accessing computing resources through standard mechanisms and platforms
  • —

Question 3)
Which layer of the cloud native stack defines the environment?

  • Application and data services layer
  • Scheduling and orchestration layer
  • Cloud infrastructure layer
  • Application code layer

Question 4)
Cloud native applications consist of microservices working together to comprise an application. Where are the microservices typically packaged?

  • Vaults
  • Sandbox
  • Containers
  • Libraries

Question 5)
Which of the following cloud native solution stack layers holds the cloud native apps?

  • The scheduling and orchestration layer
  • The cloud infrastructure layer
  • The Application Code layer
  • —

Question 6)
Which of the following is an effort that CNCF considers their responsibility?

  • Reviewing project submissions
  • Developing new technology
  • Making technology accessible and reliable.
  • Making cloud native computing ubiquitous

Question 7)
CNCF technology projects progress through three ascending stages. Which of the following is the middle stage?

  • Sandbox
  • Submission
  • Incubated
  • Graduate

Question 8)
True or False: CNCF technology provides marketing and promotion efforts by the maturity of the project.

  • False
  • True

Question 9)
The app modernization effort affects which stages of application development?

  • Build, Deploy, and Run
  • Innovation, Agile Delivery, Cost Reduction
  • Cloud Native, Cloud Ready, Traditional
  • Refactor, Repackage, Test

Question 10)
Which of the following modernization patterns involves breaking down a monolithic application into small, loosely coupled microservices aligned to a feature or business function?

  • Refactor to microservices
  • Repackage
  • Rehost
  • Replatform

Module 2 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What is the primary reason for DevOps initiative failure?

  • Lack of skills
  • Lack of tools
  • Lack of organizational learning and cultural change
  • Lack of communication

Question 2)
What is the TDD workflow?

  • Write the code, test it manually, and refactor it if necessary.
  • Write a failing test case, write enough code to make it pass, refactor the code to increase quality, and repeat the process.
  • Write a passing test case and refactor the code to improve it.
  • Write the perfect code, refactor it, and then write failing test cases.

Question 3)
What is the purpose of unit testing?

  • To combine individual units and test them as a group.
  • To test the complete system end to end.
  • To validate that each unit is performing as designed.
  • To test the system for acceptability.

Question 4)
What levels are BDDs usually performed?

  • Unit and system testing
  • Integration and system testing
  • Acceptance testing
  • Component testing

Question 5)
How does CI/CD reduce code integration risk?

  • By providing opportunities for code review with every pull request
  • By automatically building, testing, and deploying code changes
  • By automating the deployment process
  • By ensuring that the code in the main or master branch is always deployable

Question 6)
Which of the following is true regarding Continuous Deployment?

  • Continuous Deployment is continuously pushing your code changes to production.
  • Continuous Deployment only happens on local machines.
  • Continuous Deployment is required only to build your application.
  • Continuous Deployment happens only when manual approval is given.

Question 7)
How does CI help reduce the risk of code integration issues?

  • By enabling larger changes to the code.
  • By increasing the chances of errors during integration.
  • By eliminating the need for testing.
  • By reducing the probability of errors during integration.

Question 8)
What does Git allow developers to do that other version control systems may not?

  • Check out the entire file history
  • Work on the same branch simultaneously
  • Collaborate in a distributed (non-linear) way
  • Roll back commits with more granularity

Question 9)
Which CI/CD tool is an open-source, flexible framework for building fully portable pipelines?

  • Jenkins
  • CircleCI
  • GitHub Actions
  • Tekton

Question 10)
Which of the following is a cloud-based CI tool?

  • Travis CI
  • Jenkins
  • GitLab CI/CD
  • Bamboo

Module 3 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which of the following is the key difference between a project manager and a scrum master?

  • The project manager assigns work to team members, while the scrum master coaches the team to be self-managed.
  • The project manager creates a Kanban board, while the scrum master keeps the team focused on the current sprint.
  • The project manager is a coach that keeps the team focused on the current sprint, while the scrum master is a task manager.
  • The project manager eliminates impediments while buffering the team from interruptions, while the scrum master documents risks.

Question 2)
Which of the following should be included in a user story?

  • Technical details, development timeline, and risks.
  • Business value, assumptions, and definition of done.
  • User feedback, feature requests, and bug reports.
  • Agile methodology, testing criteria, and team responsibilities.

Question 3)
Which of the following about Epics in Agile development is true?

  • Epics describe small stories that a team can complete within a sprint.
  • Epics describe stories that are too large to be completed within a sprint.
  • Epics are used to describe stories unrelated to the overall project goals.
  • Epics describe stories that are not important enough to be completed within a sprint.

Question 4)
Which of the following best describes story points?

  • A metric to estimate the time it takes to complete a user story.
  • A metric used to prioritize user stories in a backlog.
  • A metric used to track the progress of a user story.
  • A metric to estimate the difficulty of delivering and implementing a user story.

Question 5)
Which of the following is an anti-pattern related to evaluating user stories?

  • Breaking down big ideas into smaller stories.
  • Evaluating user stories based on wall clock time.
  • Using abstract measures to estimate the difficulty of a user story.
  • Evaluating user stories based on effort and complexity.

Question 6)
Which of the following is true about the product backlog?

  • It includes stories in the sprint plan, icebox, and backlog.
  • It contains all the stories completed in a sprint.
  • It only includes stories in the sprint plan.
  • It only includes stories that are fully detailed and ready to implement.

Question 7)
Which of the following defines team velocity?

  • The number of tasks completed by the development team.
  • The number of hours worked by the development team.
  • The maximum amount of story points a team is capable of finishing in a single sprint.
  • The speed at which a team completes a sprint.

Question 8)
Which of the following is the purpose of the sprint review?

  • To create a sprint plan in the sprint backlog.
  • To assign story points to product backlog items.
  • To get feedback and convert it into new stories in the product backlog.
  • To define the sprint goal.

Question 9)
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sprint Retrospective meeting?

  • To plan and assign stories to the Sprint backlog.
  • To measure the health of the team.
  • To document feedback from stakeholders and create new stories.
  • To assess the process’s health and think back on the sprint.

Question 10)
Which of the following is true about who should attend the Sprint Retrospective meeting?

  • The Scrum Master and the entire development team should attend.
  • Only the Scrum Master should attend.
  • The Scrum Master, the product owner, and the development team should attend.
  • The Scrum Master and the stakeholders should attend.

Module 4 Graded Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What is the main benefit of using NoSQL databases?

  • They are more complex to develop application functionality for
  • They can handle large-scale data and concurrent users
  • They are better suited for small-scale data
  • They are more specialized in their use cases

Question 2)
What led to the development of new scalable technologies in the late 90s and early 2000s?

  • The need to serve millions of users on the public internet
  • The desire to improve data security in applications
  • The rise of cloud computing
  • The need for faster data processing on local networks

Question 3)
How does MongoDB provide high availability?

  • By keeping multiple copies of your data
  • By restricting the amount of data that can be stored
  • By only allowing horizontal scaling
  • By requiring a predefined schema

Question 4)
What advantage does MongoDB offer over traditional relational databases?

  • MongoDB only supports one type of data
  • MongoDB requires a predefined schema before data can be stored
  • MongoDB does not support sub-documents
  • MongoDB allows for more flexibility in storing structured and unstructured data

Question 5)
What is the key benefit of MongoDB’s evolving schema?

  • It requires using third-party frameworks for additional information
  • It requires changing the database structure
  • It allows for easy adaptation to new data requirements
  • It limits the types of data that can be stored

Question 6)
What is the key benefit of MongoDB’s querying and analytics capabilities?

  • It uses MongoDB Query Language (MQL) to build complex queries
  • It requires writing complex SQL queries
  • It doesn’t support Aggregation pipelines
  • It limits the complexity of queries that can be built

Question 7)
Why is MongoDB a good fit for real-time analytics?

  • It requires complex ETL processes
  • It can only handle structured data
  • It cannot respond to changes happening minute by minute
  • It can perform analysis where the data is stored

Question 8)
What is one of the benefits of using MongoDB in the finance industry?

  • It does not provide encryption for stored data
  • It requires complex Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) processes
  • It can perform thousands of operations on the database per second and is highly reliable
  • It cannot store data from distributed IoT devices

Question 9)
What is the purpose of the Mongo shell?

  • To interact with your databases and perform data and administrative operations on MongoDB
  • To connect to your email account and send emails
  • To create documents and collections for your database
  • To perform CRUD operations on MySQL databases

Question 10)
Which function can be used to delete more than one document meeting the criteria?

  • deleteMany
  • removeOne
  • removeMany
  • deleteOne

Course 7 – Introduction to Containers w/ Docker, Kubernetes & OpenShift

Graded Quiz: Containers and Containerization Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What are the steps used to create and run containers?

  • Input the container image name and tag.
  • Create a container image, use it to create a Dockerfile, and then use the Dockerfile to create a running container.
  • Create a Dockerfile, use it to create a container image, and then use the container image to create a running container.
  • Create a Dockerfile and use it with the pull command to create a running container.

Question 2)
What is the function of the Docker ‘run’ command?

  • Creates a container from an image
  • Lists all images, repositories, tags, and sizes
  • Stores images in a configured registry
  • Retrieves images from a configured registry

Question 3)
What applications are a good fit for Docker?

  • Applications with rich GUI features
  • Applications that require flexible scaling and portability
  • Applications that need a lot of security
  • Applications with high performance requirements

Question 4)
What is a Docker container?

  • A persistent set of data that can be transferred
  • A runnable instance of an image
  • A method of isolating communication
  • A read-only template

Question 5)
Do containers have to be on a specific operating system or platform?

  • Yes, containers only work on Windows-based operating systems and platforms.
  • No, containers work on many types of operating systems and platforms.
  • Yes, containers only work on Linux-based operating systems and platforms.
  • No, containers don’t run on operating systems or platforms.

Question 6)
What are three parts of Docker’s underlying technology?

  • Linux kernel features
  • Namespaces
  • GitHub
  • The Go programming language

Question 7)
What does the Docker client-server architecture provide?

  • Code checking
  • Cloud storage
  • An application environment
  • A communication channel

Question 8)
What are volumes and bind mounts used for in Docker?

  • Connecting to external storage platforms
  • Erasing data
  • Isolating communication
  • Persisting data

Question 9)
How are digital containers like shipping containers?

  • Both digital and shipping containers have to travel internationally.
  • Container size and specs are standardized, which makes them easier to move around.
  • Digital containers must be welded to computer motherboards, just like shipping containers must be welded.
  • Digital containers are not like shipping containers.

Question 10)
What Docker features create a container image?

  • The build command and a Dockerfile
  • The image command and a Dockerfile
  • The copy command and an existing image
  • The run command and a Dockerfile

Graded Quiz: Kubernetes Basics Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What is automated bin packing?

  • A Kubernetes capability that mounts a chosen storage system
  • A Kubernetes capability that scales workloads based on metrics or commands
  • A Kubernetes capability that applies automatic changes
  • A Kubernetes capability that performs container auto-placement based on resource requirements and conditions without sacrificing high availability

Question 2)
What component of a worker node ensures containers are running as desired?

  • The Kubernetes proxy
  • Container runtime
  • Etcd
  • The kubelet

Question 3)
What are three Kubernetes capabilities?

  • Secret and configuration management
  • Storage orchestration
  • Automated rollouts
  • CI/CD pipelines

Question 4)
In what three environments can container orchestration be implemented?

  • Private cloud environments
  • On-premises environments
  • A single device
  • Public cloud environments

Question 5)
What does a control plane do?

  • Maintains the intended Cluster state by making decisions about the Cluster and detecting and responding to events in the Cluster
  • Contains Pods
  • Shares all the resources of a node
  • Assigns newly created Pods to nodes

Question 6)
What is Kubectl?

  • Kubernetes command line interface (CLI)
  • Cloud command line interface
  • OpenShift command line interface (oc)
  • Docker command line interface

Question 7)
What is a label?

  • A key-value pair attached to an object
  • A mechanism for isolating groups of resources within a single Cluster
  • The simplest unit in Kubernetes
  • A set of identical running Pod replicas that are horizontally scaled

Question 8)
What Kubernetes object should be used for stateless applications?

  • ReplicaSet
  • Deployment
  • StatefulSet
  • DaemonSet

Question 9)
What is the most popular container orchestration tool used as of 2022?

  • Kubernetes
  • Nomad
  • Docker Swarm
  • Marathon

Question 10)
What is the function of an External Name Service?

  • Provides inter-service communication within the Cluster
  • Directs traffic to the NodePort Service
  • Creates and routes the incoming requests automatically to the ClusterIP Service
  • Maps to a DNS name

Graded Quiz: Managing Applications with Kubernetes Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What Kubernetes object adds or deletes pods for scaling and redundancy?

  • A Config Map
  • A Secret
  • A ReplicaSet
  • A DaemonSet

Question 2)
What are the three required steps to bind the IBM Cloud Service to your Cluster?

  • Provision an instance of the Service.
  • Erase the credential configuration file after credential setup.
  • Configure your app to access the credentials.
  • Bind the Service to your Cluster to create credentials.

Question 3)
Which rolling update types ensure 100% app availability?

  • One-at-a-time updates and rollbacks ensure 100% app availability.
  • All-at-once updates and rollbacks ensure 100% app availability.
  • Both all-at-once and one-at-a-time updates and rollbacks ensure 100% app availability.
  • No rolling update types can ensure 100% app availability.

Question 4)
What are three ways to create a ConfigMap?

  • By providing a ConfigMap YAML descriptor file
  • By adding another environment to the deployment descriptor
  • By using an existing property or ‘key’ = ‘value’ file
  • By using string literals

Question 5)
What does a ConfigMap do?

  • Verifies that a Secret was created
  • Mounts a file using the volumes plugin
  • Provides sensitive information to your application
  • Provides variables for your application

Question 6)
Which Kubernetes autoscaler type scales the Cluster?

  • You cannot autoscale a Kubernetes Cluster.
  • Horizontal Pod Autoscaler (HPA)
  • Vertical Pod Autoscaler (VPA)
  • Cluster Autoscaler (CA)

Question 7)
How do you create a ReplicaSet from scratch?

  • Use the ‘get pods’ command.
  • Apply a JSON file that includes the number of desired replicas.
  • Apply a YAML file with the ‘kind’ attribute set to ‘ReplicaSet’.
  • Use the ‘scale’ command to scale the deployment.

Question 8)
What does Service binding do?

  • Makes Service credentials hidden.
  • Provides variables for your application
  • Manages configuration and credentials for back-end Services while protecting sensitive data
  • Calls the service without using binding credentials.

Question 9)
How do you prepare your application to enable rolling updates?

  • Add liveness and readiness probes to deployments.
  • Use autoscaling.
  • Set the maxSurge to 100%.
  • Set the maxSurge to 50%.

Question 10)
What are three ways to create a Secret?

  • By using volume mounts
  • By using a string literal
  • By using environment variables
  • By providing a ConfigMap YAML descriptor file

Graded Quiz: The Kubernetes Ecosystem: OpenShift, Istio, etc. Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What are the two features of an ImageStream?

  • Stores images
  • Creates and updates container images
  • Provides a trigger capability when a new version of an image is available
  • Provides content for Builds

Question 2)
What are the three Build triggers used in OpenShift?

  • ImageStream
  • Image change
  • Configuration change
  • Webhook

Question 3)
Which three statements are true?

  • The oc lets you manage projects during restricted bandwidth or availability of the web console.
  • The oc and kubectl binary offer different capabilities.
  • The oc lets you work directly with project source code using command script.
  • The oc lets you script OpenShift operations.

Question 4)
What packages, deploys, and manages native apps in Kubernetes?

  • An Operator
  • A Deployment
  • A ReplicaSet
  • A Container

Question 5)
What strategy was Red Hat OpenShift designed for?

  • A private cloud strategy.
  • A hybrid-cloud strategy.
  • A public cloud strategy
  • An on-premises strategy.

Question 6)
What provides traffic management to control the flow of traffic between Services?

  • Kubectl
  • A container
  • A service mesh
  • An autoscaler

Question 7)
What three processes are performed by the Operator Framework tool set?

  • Testing
  • Package
  • Building
  • Coding

Question 8)
What are the three features of Custom Resource Definitions (CRDs)?

  • Control the install, upgrade, and role-based access control (RBAC) of Operators in a cluster
  • Make Kubernetes API more modular
  • Can be engaged with kubectl
  • Extend Kubernetes functionality

Question 9)
In Istio, what handles communication between services?

  • The data plane
  • The proxy server
  • Environmental changes
  • The control plane

Question 10)
What are three added features that OpenShift provides?

  • Better user experience
  • Good networking solutions out of the box
  • Better management through image streams
  • More flexible

Course 8 – Application Development using Microservices and Serverless

Graded Quiz: Introduction to Microservices Quiz Answers

Question 1)
Which phase of the Twelve-Factor Methodology contains Port binding?

  • Code
  • Deploy
  • Operate
  • Configure

Question 2)
What makes an application concurrent?

  • It should contain the same backend services across environments
  • It should be stateless
  • It should store config in environment variables
  • It should have a minimal process start time

Question 3)
In a microservice architecture, you can

  • Deploy all services together
  • Create interdependency among services
  • Scale all services together
  • Use a different technology stack for each service

Question 4)
Select the correct answer that completes this sentence:
Monolith application has __________ components.

  • Interconnected
  • Independent
  • Scalable
  • Reusable

Question 5)
Which component of services design in an SOA architecture defines how the service provider and service consumer should interact?

  • Own storage
  • Interface
  • Contract
  • Implementation

Question 6)
What is the purpose of Backend For Frontend?

  • Refactoring in stages
  • Customized user experiences
  • Loading one interface that never reloads
  • Service discovery

Question 7)
What is the purpose of the Strangler pattern?

  • Helps with third-party API integrations
  • Supports refactoring in stages
  • Simplifies the front-end experience
  • Combine functional domains

Question 8)
Larger services should be broken into smaller services when:

  • Automation is required
  • Common data model becomes overly complex
  • Functional reusability is required
  • Refactoring is required

Question 9)
What is the requirement of Microservices?

  • Its own implementation of auxiliary services like loggings, security, throttling, and so on
  • Coarse-grained functionality
  • Independent storage
  • Manual deployment process

Question 10)
What is the requirement of a development and production environment?

  • Embedded access details in code
  • Different source control
  • Similar backing services across the environments.
  • Different dependencies

Graded Quiz: Web API Essentials – REST API and GraphQL Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What are the key characteristics of a RESTful API? Select two answers.

  • It works on HTTP
  • Stateless communication between client and server
  • Unique interface for each component
  • One API to access all resources

Question 2)
What does an API Gateway act as?

  • A load balancer for your hosted services
  • A streaming service
  • An API management tool
  • A firewall to protect your microservices

Question 3)
Which syntax is used to make an update request to a product REST API?

  • GET /products/114?updatedName=Calendar2023
  • PUT /products/114/name/Calendar2023
  • POST /products (product data in the body)
  • PUT /products/114 (product data in the body)

Question 4)
Which type of framework is Flask?

  • REST API
  • Micro web
  • Database
  • Frontend

Question 5)
Which one of the following statements is true about communication in a RESTful API?

  • Session state is kept entirely on the REST API.
  • Resources are uniquely identified at individual endpoints.
  • Each request does not contain all information.
  • A request can take advantage of any stored context on the server.

Question 6)
What are the potential drawbacks of an API Gateway? Select two answers.

  • Increases requests to the backend
  • Bottleneck in scalability
  • Single point of failure
  • Exposes the implementation details

Question 7)
Which specification is followed by Swagger?

  • OpenAPI
  • WebAPI
  • GraphQL
  • SOA

Question 8)
Which cURL command should be used to query a list of products?

Question 9)
Which HTTP method is used to create new data in a REST API?

  • PATCH
  • PUT
  • UPDATE
  • POST

Question 10)
What is the purpose of Postman?

  • Tests APIs
  • Uniform interface for different components
  • Transfers applications
  • Command line tool to get data

Graded Quiz: Serverless Overview Quiz Answers

Question 1)
What is one of the benefits that serverless computing provides?

  • All-in-one app development platform
  • Quick access to APIs
  • Code runs on-demand as needed
  • Tools to help manage server operations

Question 2)
How does FaaS package application code?

  • API Gateways
  • Requests
  • Containers
  • Microservices

Question 3)
In the What is Function as a Service video, a real-world example is shown where a user uploads a photo to a web site and creates a thumbnail image. Which action is performed by a function?

  • User uploads image
  • Message is generated to user
  • User uploads thumbnail
  • Thumbnail is created

Question 4)
FaaS is considered the originating technology in the serverless category. Which part of the serverless stack does FaaS represent?

  • Core compute and processing engine
  • Communication layer (e.g., messaging)
  • Storage
  • Data layer

Question 5)
In the serverless stack, which is considered part of the databases and storage layer?

  • Object storage
  • Microservices
  • Functions
  • Containers

Question 6)
IoT sensor data is often used with serverless computing.

  • False
  • True

Question 7)
In the compute models comparison, which requires no administration?

  • Containers
  • PaaS
  • FaaS
  • VMs

Question 8)
Of the four compared compute models, which require the most maintenance?

  • PaaS and Containers
  • PaaS and VMs
  • Containers and VMs
  • FaaS and Containers

Question 9)
Which of the compared compute models has high availability built in?

  • VMs
  • FaaS
  • Containers
  • PaaS

Question 10)
A sequence is a chain of actions that are invoked in order. Why are actions invoked in order?

  • Functions can only perform multiple actions
  • The order is determined by who called the function
  • REST APIs require orderly sequence of actions
  • Output of one action is passed as input to the next action

Graded Quiz: Create and Deploy Microservices Quiz Answers

Question 1)
After creating an action, you must invoke the action so it can do its task. What are two modes for invoking actions?

  • Activation and activation ID
  • Blocking and non-blocking
  • Request and response
  • Activation and Activation record

Question 2)
What can you use to pass parameters to actions?

  • A JSON file and the object flag.
  • A JSON file and the param-file flag.
  • A JSON file and the place flag.
  • A JSON file and the param-required flag.

Question 3)
What do you use to create sequence actions?

  • Existing actions
  • Proxy actions
  • Sequence builders
  • JavaScript

Question 4)
IBM Cloud Functions provides pre-installed libraries to call actions from other actions.

  • True
  • False, this can only be done using HTTP

Question 5)
What is provided by public packages for IBM Cloud Functions?

  • Cloudant instances
  • Actions
  • Namespaces
  • Triggers feeds

Question 6)
What command can you use to avoid passing the same parameters to an action every time?

  • ibmcloud fn package bind
  • ibmcloud fn parameter bind
  • ibmcloud fn default parameter
  • ibmcloud fn package join

Question 7)
How can you set default parameters for all entities in a package?

  • Join actions
  • Set package level parameters that are inherited by all actions
  • List parameters
  • Sequence actions

Question 8)
What can you use to configure an external event source to fire multiple trigger events?

  • Parameter
  • Feed
  • Sequence action
  • Get command

Question 9)
If you have already created an action and want to create a trigger to invoke this action, what three options must you include in the rule create command?

  • Name of rule, location of trigger and action
  • Location of rule, name of trigger, and action
  • Rule ID, trigger ID, and action ID
  • Name of rule, trigger, and action

Question 10)
Why would you expose actions as APIs rather than manually via command line or web console?

  • There is less chance of error
  • Actions called manually don’t integrate well with microservices
  • Actions exposed as APIs have better performance
  • Actions are invalid unless they are exposed as APIs

Question 11)
What is one of the reasons to use the API Gateway service?

  • Perform request routing
  • Perform rate limiting
  • It’s the only way to create web actions
  • Perform user authentication

Question 12)
According to the Cloud native user survey, what is highest rated challenge Kubernetes users face?

  • Admin/Operator user experience improvements
  • Developer user experience improvements
  • Multitenancy improvements
  • Improved serverless support

read also: Microsoft Azure Security Engineer Associate (AZ-500) Quiz Answers + Honest Review

Course 9 – Node.js & MongoDB: Developing Back-end Database Applications

Coming Soon

Course 10 – Application Security for Developers and DevOps Professionals

Coming Soon

Course 11 – Monitoring and Observability for Development and DevOps

Coming Soon

Course 12 – JavaScript Back-end Capstone Project

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Course 13 – Software Developer Career Guide and Interview Preparation

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